Nokea
The clinic nurse is assessing a new male client. Which nursing assessment finding would cause the nurse to suspect sterility in this client?
- A. Uncircumcised penis
- B. Recurrent urinary tract infections (UTI)
- C. Multiple sex partners
- D. Mumps at age 15 years
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Viral mumps infection that occurs after puberty can be a cause of orchitis, which may result in testicular atrophy and sterility. Uncircumcised penis, UTIs, and number of sex partners are not indicated with sterility.
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The client with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is considering use of medication in the management of symptoms. The nurse explains that which drug reduces the size of the prostate without lowering circulating levels of testosterone?
- A. Finasteride (Proscar)
- B. Tamsulosin (Flomax)
- C. Terazosin (Hytrin)
- D. Oxybutynin chloride (Ditropan)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Finasteride (Proscar) inhibits the conversion of testosterone, depriving the gland of dihydrotestosterone (more potent type of testosterone), which stimulates prostatic growth. Tamsulosin (Flomax) and terazosin (Hytrin) work by reducing the tone of smooth muscle in the bladder neck and prostate gland but have little effect on reducing prostate size. Oxybutynin chloride (Ditropan) is an antimuscarinic, antispasmodic drug used for treatment of overactive bladder.
A clinic nurse is scheduled to see four male clients. Which assessment finding is most important in determining which client has a higher risk for developing testicular cancer?
- A. Previous sexually transmitted infection (STI)
- B. Low sperm count
- C. Cryptorchidism as an infant
- D. Family history of cancer
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Caucasian men who have had cryptorchidism as an infant, regardless of whether an orchiopexy was performed, are at higher risk, for incidence of testicular cancer. STIs, low sperm count, and family history of general cancer are not indicative of testicular cancer risk.
Which of the following would a nurse include in a teaching plan for a client with benign prostatic hyperplasia who is not yet a candidate for surgery?
- A. Maintaining optimal bladder emptying
- B. Using appropriate coping to alley anxiety.
- C. Performing deep breathing exercises periodically
- D. Doing leg exercises at least daily.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For the client with benign prostatic hyperplasia who is not yet a candidate for surgery, the nurse would teach a client how to maintain optimal bladder emptying. The surgical client requires support and information to allay anxiety. The nurse teaches deep breathing and leg exercises for the client who is to have surgery.
Which nursing assessment finding is most significant in determining the plan of care in a client with erectile dysfunction?
- A. Age
- B. Medication use
- C. Sexual history
- D. Undescended testicle
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Certain medications such as antihypertensive drugs, antidepressants, narcotics, etc. can cause sexual dysfunction in men. Impotence is not a normal part of aging. Undescended testicle is not indicative of ED. Sexual history is not indicative of ED.
After examination, a client is found to have a prostatic nodule and is scheduled for prostatic-specific antigen (PSA) testing. When the nurse is reviewing the results, which of the following would indicate that the nodule is malignant?
- A. 4 ng/mL.
- B. 7 ng/mL.
- C. 4 ng/mL.
- D. 12 ng/mL.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: After a prostatic nodule is detected, prostate-specific antigen testing may be done. A PSA greater than 4 ng/mL is the basis for performing more definitive diagnostic procedures, and a PSA greater than 10 ng/mL indicates a prostatic malignancy. A PSA greater than 80 ng/mL indicates advanced metastatic disease.