Nokea
The college health nurse is providing health education for freshmen. Which of the following pieces of information about immunizations is applicable to individuals of this age group?
- A. The oral polio vaccine should be updated.
- B. The yearly administration of flu vaccine is recommended.
- C. The tetanus toxoid should be within 2 years.
- D. The administration of hepatitis A vaccine is mandatory.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For freshmen in college, the yearly administration of the flu vaccine is recommended. This is important to protect against seasonal influenza outbreaks that can spread rapidly in close living quarters such as dormitories. Choice A is incorrect as oral polio vaccine is not typically given to individuals of this age group. Choice C is incorrect as tetanus toxoid boosters are usually recommended every 10 years, not within 2 years. Choice D is incorrect as the administration of the hepatitis A vaccine is not mandatory for all individuals in this age group.
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When starting on oral contraceptives, what key point should the nurse emphasize about taking the medication consistently?
- A. Oral contraceptives should be taken at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and prevent pregnancy.
- B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day, as long as the schedule is consistent.
- C. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid nighttime side effects.
- D. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately upon starting, regardless of timing.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When starting on oral contraceptives, it is crucial to take them at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and ensure their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is essential to maximize contraceptive efficacy. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence that taking oral contraceptives in the morning helps avoid nighttime side effects. Choice D is incorrect because oral contraceptives do not provide immediate effectiveness and require consistent use to prevent pregnancy.
A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following treatments would be most effective?
- A. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
- B. Protease inhibitors
- C. Entrance inhibitors
- D. Highly active antiretroviral therapy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). HAART involves a combination of different classes of antiretroviral drugs, which can effectively suppress the HIV virus, reduce the viral load, and improve the immune function. While choices A, B, and C are also used in HIV treatment, the most effective approach is a combination therapy like HAART due to its ability to target the virus at different stages of its life cycle, reducing the risk of drug resistance and improving treatment outcomes.
An older adult patient has just sheared the skin on her elbow while attempting to boost herself up in bed, an event that has precipitated acute inflammation in the region surrounding the wound. Which of the following events will occur during the vascular stage of the patient's inflammation?
- A. Outpouring of exudate into interstitial spaces
- B. Chemotaxis
- C. Accumulation of leukocytes along epithelium
- D. Phagocytosis of cellular debris
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During the vascular stage of inflammation, there is an outpouring of exudate into the interstitial spaces, leading to swelling and edema. Choice B, chemotaxis, occurs during the cellular stage of inflammation, where leukocytes move to the site of injury in response to chemical signals. Choice C, accumulation of leukocytes along the epithelium, is not a typical event during the vascular stage. Phagocytosis of cellular debris, as in choice D, mainly occurs during the resolution stage of inflammation.
A patient has been prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for the prevention of osteoporosis. What effect should the nurse include in the teaching plan regarding the action of this medication?
- A. Decreases calcium excretion by the kidneys.
- B. Increases intestinal absorption of calcium.
- C. Stimulates bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
- D. Selectively binds to estrogen receptors, decreasing bone resorption.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Selectively binds to estrogen receptors, decreasing bone resorption. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that works by binding to estrogen receptors, thereby decreasing bone resorption. This action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by preserving bone density. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because raloxifene does not directly affect calcium excretion by the kidneys, intestinal absorption of calcium, or stimulate bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
A secondary immune response differs from the primary immune response in that:
- A. It is more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels
- B. It is slower than the primary response and doesn't change the antibody levels
- C. It occurs at the same time as the primary response but results in a decrease in antibodies
- D. It only occurs in hyperallergic reactions and results in a decrease in antibodies
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A secondary immune response is characterized by being more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels. This is because memory B cells are already present and can quickly differentiate into plasma cells upon re-exposure to the antigen. Choice B is incorrect because a secondary immune response is faster, not slower, than the primary response, and it does lead to higher antibody levels. Choice C is incorrect because a secondary response does not result in a decrease in antibodies; instead, it leads to an increase. Choice D is incorrect because a secondary immune response is not limited to hyperallergic reactions, and it results in an increase, not a decrease, in antibodies.