Nokea
The commonest cause of jaundice in thalassemia is:
- A. viral hepatitis c
- B. iron deposition in liver
- C. viral hepatitis B
- D. haemolysis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: haemolysis. In thalassemia, there is an abnormality in hemoglobin production leading to the destruction of red blood cells, causing hemolysis. This results in the release of bilirubin, leading to jaundice. Iron deposition in the liver (choice B) is seen in conditions like hemochromatosis, not thalassemia. Viral hepatitis B and C (choices A and C) can cause jaundice, but they are not the commonest cause in thalassemia patients, as hemolysis is the primary mechanism in this population.
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The nurse is caring for a patient who has a white blood cell (WBC) count of 8000/mm³. What concern should the nurse have about this finding?
- A. The patient has an infection.
- B. The patient is at risk for infection.
- C. The patient has a hematological disorder.
- D. There is no concern; this is a normal finding.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a WBC count of 8000/mm³ falls within the normal reference range of 4000-11000/mm³. Therefore, there is no immediate concern regarding infection or hematological disorder. Choice A is incorrect because a normal WBC count does not indicate infection. Choice B is incorrect as the count is within the normal range, not indicating increased infection risk. Choice C is incorrect as a normal WBC count does not suggest a hematological disorder.
The nurse assesses a patient who has numerous petechiae on both arms. Which question should the nurse ask the patient?
- A. Do you take salicylates?
- B. Are you taking any oral contraceptives?
- C. Have you been prescribed antiseizure drugs?
- D. How long have you taken antihypertensive drugs?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A: Do you take salicylates?
Rationale:
1. Petechiae are tiny red or purple spots caused by bleeding under the skin.
2. Salicylates (like aspirin) can cause bleeding issues leading to petechiae.
3. Asking about salicylate use helps identify a potential cause for the petechiae.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Oral contraceptives are not typically associated with petechiae.
C: Antiseizure drugs do not commonly cause petechiae.
D: Antihypertensive drugs are not known to be a common cause of petechiae.
A 9-year-old boy is being treated for standard-risk acute lymphoblastic leukemia. His treatment protocol calls for administration of intravenous methotrexate and intramuscular L-asparaginase during interim maintenance chemotherapy. What is the most appropriate sequence of drug administration?
- A. Administer L-asparaginase during the methotrexate infusion.
- B. Administer L-asparaginase immediately after the methotrexate infusion.
- C. Administer both drugs at the same time to maximize synergistic activity.
- D. Administer methotrexate 24 hours after the asparaginase.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer L-asparaginase immediately after the methotrexate infusion. This sequence is appropriate because methotrexate can interfere with the activity of L-asparaginase if given concurrently, affecting the efficacy of both drugs. Administering L-asparaginase immediately after the methotrexate infusion allows for optimal therapeutic effects of both medications without compromising their individual actions.
Choice A (Administer L-asparaginase during the methotrexate infusion) is incorrect because it may lead to drug interactions and reduced effectiveness of both drugs. Choice C (Administer both drugs at the same time) is incorrect for the same reason as choice A. Choice D (Administer methotrexate 24 hours after the asparaginase) is incorrect as it does not follow the optimal timing for these medications during treatment.
Which of the following requires IL-2 and IL-4 in the conversion of unilineage progenitor cell into mature circulating cell?
- A. Neutrophil
- B. Eosinophil
- C. Basophil
- D. B lymphocyte
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: B lymphocyte. IL-2 and IL-4 are essential for the differentiation of B lymphocytes from unilineage progenitor cells into mature circulating cells. IL-2 is crucial for B cell proliferation and survival, while IL-4 is required for B cell activation and class switching. Neutrophils do not require IL-2 and IL-4 for differentiation. Eosinophils are primarily influenced by IL-5. Basophils are influenced by IL-3 and IL-5. Therefore, B lymphocytes are the only cell type among the choices that specifically requires IL-2 and IL-4 for their maturation.
A leukemia investigator plans to obtain bone marrow under general anesthesia to measure minimal residual disease (MRD) and to see if this time point can predict early relapse. The specimen will be obtained at a time point when otherwise no bone marrow would be sampled. The results are not shared with the treating oncologist, and no therapeutic interventions are decided or based on the results. Which of the following statements is most accurate about this intervention?
- A. It constitutes a minimal-risk procedure because bone marrow assessments are considered routine for patients diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia.
- B. It constitutes a minimal-risk procedure because it is a single additional procedure being performed during the course of treatment.
- C. It constitutes a greater than minimal-risk procedure because it is being done under general anesthesia.
- D. It is justifiable because future patients may benefit from knowledge gained by the research.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because obtaining bone marrow under general anesthesia carries inherent risks that make it greater than minimal-risk. Here's a step-by-step rationale:
1. General anesthesia poses risks such as allergic reactions, breathing problems, and potential complications, making the procedure more than minimal-risk.
2. Even though bone marrow assessments are routine for leukemia patients, the use of general anesthesia elevates the risk level.
3. The fact that the results are not shared with the treating oncologist and no therapeutic interventions are based on them indicates that the procedure is solely for research purposes, emphasizing the risk-benefit analysis.
4. Choice A is incorrect because the use of general anesthesia increases the procedure's risk level beyond routine.
5. Choice B is incorrect as the focus should be on the inherent risks of general anesthesia, not just the number of procedures performed.
6. Choice D is irrelevant to the risk assessment of the specific procedure and does not address the immediate safety concerns associated with general anesthesia.