Nokea
The convoluted seminiferous tubules:
- A. are located in the lobules of the male gonad;
- B. continue with the deferent duct;
- C. there are three tubules for each testicular lobule;
- D. continue with the straight tubules;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the convoluted seminiferous tubules are indeed located in the lobules of the male gonad, which is the testis. These tubules are where spermatogenesis occurs, the process of sperm production. Option B is incorrect as the convoluted tubules do not continue with the deferent duct, but they connect to the straight tubules. Option C is incorrect because there are numerous convoluted seminiferous tubules within each testicular lobule, not just three. Option D is incorrect as the convoluted tubules do not continue with the straight tubules directly; they lead to the rete testis before connecting to the straight tubules.
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The nurse is assessing a client for reproductive health problems. What would be the priority assessments? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Bleeding
- B. Pain
- C. Sexual orientation
- D. Masses
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Bleeding is a priority assessment because it can indicate serious reproductive health issues such as ectopic pregnancy or cervical cancer. Pain and masses are important assessments, but bleeding takes precedence due to its potential urgency. Sexual orientation is not a priority assessment for reproductive health problems as it does not directly impact the client's immediate physical health.
Which patient does the nurse recognize as having the highest risk for ovarian cancer?
- A. A 24-year-old nulliparous woman who has a history of multiple sexual partners
- B. A 32-year-old woman who has had six live births and a history of human papilloma virus (HPV) infection
- C. A 55-year-old woman who reached menarche at age 12 and menopause at age 54
- D. A 64-year-old nulliparous woman who has taken hormone replacement therapy for 8 years
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient is a 64-year-old nulliparous woman who has taken hormone replacement therapy for 8 years. Nulliparity (never giving birth) and prolonged use of hormone replacement therapy are both risk factors for ovarian cancer. Age is also a significant risk factor for ovarian cancer, with the highest incidence in women over 60.
Choice A is incorrect because although having multiple sexual partners may increase the risk of certain sexually transmitted infections, it is not a direct risk factor for ovarian cancer.
Choice B is incorrect because while HPV infection is associated with cervical cancer, it is not a known risk factor for ovarian cancer.
Choice C is incorrect because the age of menarche and menopause are not directly linked to an increased risk of ovarian cancer.
In summary, the correct answer, D, combines the highest risk factors for ovarian cancer, which are nulliparity, prolonged hormone replacement therapy, and older age.
When developing the plan of care for a home health client who has been discharged after a radical prostatectomy, which activities will you delegate to the home health aide?
- A. Monitor the client for symptoms of urinary tract infection.
- B. Help the client to connect the catheter to the leg bag.
- C. Assess the client's incision for appropriate wound healing.
- D. Assist the client to ambulate for increasing distances.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Assisting with mobility is within the scope of practice for a home health aide.
Which of the following structures are located inferior to the prostate on either side of the membranous urethra within the deep muscles of the perineum?
- A. bulbourethral gland
- B. Seminal vesicles
- C. Ejaculatory ducts
- D. Urethral ducts
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: bulbourethral gland. These glands are located inferior to the prostate on either side of the membranous urethra within the deep muscles of the perineum. They secrete a clear mucus-like fluid that neutralizes acidic urine in the urethra.
The other choices are incorrect:
B: Seminal vesicles are located posterior to the bladder and contribute to seminal fluid production.
C: Ejaculatory ducts connect the vas deferens to the urethra and are not located in the deep muscles of the perineum.
D: Urethral ducts are not a specific anatomical structure and do not exist in this context.
When do progesterone levels rise to their highest point during the female hormonal cycle?
- A. Between ovulation and the beginning of menstruation
- B. Immediately before ovulation
- C. When the blood concentration of luteinizing hormone is at its highest point
- D. When 12 primary follicles are developing to the antral stage
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Progesterone levels rise to their highest point between ovulation and the beginning of menstruation because this is the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle when the corpus luteum (formed from the ruptured follicle after ovulation) secretes progesterone. This hormone prepares the endometrium for implantation and maintains a potential pregnancy.
Explanation for other choices:
- B: Immediately before ovulation, estrogen levels are high, not progesterone.
- C: Luteinizing hormone surge triggers ovulation, not directly related to progesterone rise.
- D: The development of primary follicles is associated with estrogen, not progesterone.