The degree or extent of disease-evoking power that a microorganism has is referred to as:
- A. virulence
- B. strength
- C. resistance
- D. competence
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: virulence. Virulence refers to the degree or extent of disease-evoking power that a microorganism possesses. This term specifically describes the ability of a microorganism to cause disease in a host. It is a crucial factor in understanding the pathogenicity of different microorganisms.
Choice B: strength is incorrect because it does not specifically relate to the disease-causing potential of a microorganism. Choice C: resistance refers to the ability of an organism to withstand the effects of a particular agent, such as a drug or environmental factor. Choice D: competence is not directly related to the disease-causing ability of a microorganism, but rather refers to the ability of an organism to perform a specific function effectively.
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A 35-year-old patient with a severe respiratory infection had sputum that showed Gram-negative, comma-shaped bacteria. What is the likely causative agent?
- A. Vibrio cholerae
- B. Shigella dysenteriae
- C. Campylobacter jejuni
- D. Helicobacter pylori
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Campylobacter jejuni. This bacterium is Gram-negative and comma-shaped, commonly causing respiratory infections. Vibrio cholerae (A) causes cholera, not respiratory infections. Shigella dysenteriae (B) causes dysentery, not respiratory infections. Helicobacter pylori (D) is associated with gastric ulcers, not respiratory infections. Therefore, Campylobacter jejuni is the most likely causative agent based on the given information.
A patient has got pain in the axillary area, rise of temperature developed 10 hours ago. On examination: shaky gait is evident, the tongue is coated with white deposit. The pulse is frequent. The painful lymphatic nodes are revealed in the axillary area. The skin over the lymph nodes is erythematous and glistering. What is the most probable diagnosis?
- A. Bubonic plague
- B. Acute purulent lymphadenitis
- C. Lymphogranulomatosis
- D. Anthrax
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute purulent lymphadenitis. The symptoms described indicate an acute bacterial infection of the lymph nodes. The presence of painful lymph nodes, erythema, and shiny appearance of the skin overlying the nodes suggest an inflammatory process. The rise in temperature and frequent pulse indicate an active infection. The white-coated tongue may be a sign of systemic involvement. The shaky gait may indicate systemic toxicity. Bubonic plague (A) presents with buboes, not just painful lymph nodes. Lymphogranulomatosis (C) is a type of lymphoma and would not present with these acute bacterial infection symptoms. Anthrax (D) typically presents with a black eschar and is less likely in this context.
Factors that can increase the chances of vaginitis are:
- A. urinary blockage, drug use, and stress
- B. use of antibiotics, pregnancy, and menopause
- C. puberty, exposure to HPV, and smoking/tobacco use
- D. menopause, stress, and steroid use
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Vaginitis is often caused by an imbalance in vaginal flora. Antibiotics can disrupt the natural balance, leading to overgrowth of harmful bacteria or yeast. Pregnancy alters hormone levels, making the vagina more susceptible to infection. Menopause decreases estrogen levels, thinning the vaginal walls and reducing beneficial bacteria.
A: Urinary blockage does not directly relate to vaginitis. Drug use and stress may weaken the immune system but are not direct causes of vaginitis.
C: Puberty, HPV exposure, and smoking/tobacco use do not directly increase the chances of vaginitis. HPV is a viral infection, not a direct cause of vaginitis.
D: While menopause can increase the risk of vaginitis due to hormonal changes, stress and steroid use are not primary factors in developing vaginitis.
Which of the following pathogenic mechanisms are not typical for autoimmune reactions?
- A. Decreased functional activity of T-suppressors
- B. Loss of tolerance for T-helpers and B-lymphocytes
- C. Ag released by normally isolated tissues
- D. Formation of CD4+ cells
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Formation of CD4+ cells. In autoimmune reactions, CD4+ cells are actually involved in the immune response. Here's the rationale:
1. CD4+ cells are helper T cells that play a crucial role in activating other immune cells in autoimmune reactions.
2. Decreased functional activity of T-suppressors (Choice A) is typical in autoimmune reactions as it leads to unchecked immune responses.
3. Loss of tolerance for T-helpers and B-lymphocytes (Choice B) is common in autoimmune reactions, where the immune system mistakenly attacks self-cells.
4. Ag released by normally isolated tissues (Choice C) is a typical mechanism in autoimmune reactions where self-antigens trigger immune responses.
A 28 y.o. patient without permanent residence was admitted to the hospital with the preliminary diagnosis influenza. On the fith day of illness he got a maculopapular petechial rash on his body and internal surfaces of extremities. Body temperature is 410 C, euphoria, face hyperemia, sclera reddening, tongue tremor, tachycardia, splenomegaly, excitement. What is the most probable diagnosis?
- A. Epidemic typhus
- B. Delirium alcoholicum
- C. Leptospirosis
- D. Measles
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Initial diagnosis of influenza suggests a viral illness.
Step 2: Presence of maculopapular petechial rash and high fever indicates a systemic infection.
Step 3: Symptoms like euphoria, hyperemia, tachycardia, splenomegaly, and excitement are characteristic of epidemic typhus.
Step 4: Face hyperemia, sclera reddening, and tongue tremor are specific to epidemic typhus.
Step 5: Epidemic typhus is transmitted by body lice, which fits the scenario of a patient without permanent residence.
Summary:
- Delirium alcoholicum is unlikely due to the specific symptoms and lack of history of alcohol abuse.
- Leptospirosis typically presents with jaundice and renal symptoms, not seen in this case.
- Measles rash is different from the maculopapular petechial rash described.