The doctor has prescribed aspirin 325 mg daily for a client with transient ischemic attacks. The nurse explains that aspirin was prescribed to:
- A. Prevent headaches
- B. Boost coagulation
- C. Prevent cerebral anoxia
- D. Decrease platelet aggregation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Aspirin reduces platelet aggregation, preventing clot formation in transient ischemic attacks, reducing stroke risk. It does not prevent headaches, boost coagulation, or directly prevent anoxia.
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Which assignment should not be delegated to the licensed practical nurse?
- A. Inserting a Foley catheter
- B. Discontinuing a nasogastric tube
- C. Obtaining a sputum specimen
- D. Starting a blood transfusion
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Starting a blood transfusion requires RN-level assessment and monitoring due to the risk of transfusion reactions, which is outside the LPN’s scope in most settings. Foley insertion, NG tube discontinuation, and sputum collection are within LPN scope.
A client with BPH has undergone a TURP. Which nursing interventions are parts of the client's post-operative care?
- A. Monitoring the client's vital signs
- B. Maintaining constant bladder irrigation
- C. Limiting fluid intake to 1000 mL per day
- D. Checking for post-operative bleeding
- E. Maintaining bed rest for 48 hours
Correct Answer: A, B, D
Rationale: Post-TURP care includes monitoring vital signs (A), constant bladder irrigation (B) to prevent clots, and checking for bleeding (D). Fluid intake is encouraged (C), and bed rest is typically 24 hours (E).
The most important reason to closely assess circumferential burns at least every hour is that they may result in:
- A. Hypovolemia
- B. Renal damage
- C. Ventricular arrhythmias
- D. Loss of peripheral pulses
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Full-thickness circumferential burns are nonelastic and create an internal tourniquet effect, compromising distal blood flow in extremities or respiratory motion in the torso, leading to loss of peripheral pulses.
A client has consented to have a central venous catheter placed. The best position in which to place the client is the Trendelenburg position. The reason is that the Trendelenburg position:
- A. Allows the physician to visualize the subclavian vein
- B. Reduces the possibility of air embolism
- C. Reduces the possibility of hematoma formation
- D. Makes the procedure more comfortable for the client
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Trendelenburg position reduces air embolism risk by increasing central venous pressure and distending veins for easier catheter insertion.
A 16-year-old client comes to the prenatal clinic for her monthly appointment. She has gained 14 lb from her 7th to 8th month; her face and hands indicate edema. She is diagnosed as having PIH and referred to the high-risk prenatal clinic. The client's weight increase is most likely due to:
- A. Overeating and subsequent obesity
- B. Obesity prior to conception
- C. Hypertension due to kidney lesions
- D. Fluid retention
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Overeating can lead to obesity, but not to edema. There is no indication of obesity prior to pregnancy. PIH is more prevalent in the underweight than in the obese in this age group. Hypertension can be due to kidney lesions, but it would have been apparent earlier in the pregnancy. The weight gain in PIH is due to the retention of sodium ions and fluid and is one of the three cardinal symptoms of PIH.
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