Nokea
The ductus arteriosus is another fetal structure that is important in the intrauterine life. It functions to:
- A. Shunts the combined cardiac output from the pulmonary artery to the aorta going to the lungs
- B. Shunts the combined cardiac output from the pulmonary artery to the systemic circulation
- C. Shunts the combined cardiac output from the aorta to the pulmonary artery and later to the pulmonary veins
- D. Shunts the combined cardiac output from the aorta to the pulmonary artery to the right ventricle 48
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The ductus arteriosus is a fetal blood vessel that connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta. Its main function is to bypass the non-functional fetal lungs by shunting blood from the pulmonary artery (which carries deoxygenated blood) directly to the systemic circulation, specifically the aorta. This allows oxygenated blood from the placenta to be distributed to the body's organs and tissues without having to first pass through the lungs for oxygen exchange. After birth, when the baby begins to breathe and oxygenate its blood through the lungs, the ductus arteriosus normally closes within the first few days to weeks of life.
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The physical abuse of children by parents affects children of all ages. It is estimated that 1% to 2% of children are physically abused during childhood and that significant number of them are fatally injured each year. Of the following, the second LEADING cause of mortality from physical abuse is
- A. rib fractures
- B. head trauma
- C. abdominal injury
- D. hot tap water burn
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Head trauma is a leading cause of mortality in abused children, as it can result in severe brain damage or death.
A 6-year-old male child presented with a cerebellar mass; after undergoing complete surgical resection of the mass, the histology of the mass reveals pilocytic astrocytoma. Of the following, the MOST appropriate next step in the management is
- A. radiotherapy
- B. chemotherapy
- C. observation
- D. concomitant chemo-radiotherapy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pilocytic astrocytomas are generally low-grade tumors, and observation is often sufficient after complete resection.
The nurse is teaching a client who suspects that she has a lump in her breast. The nurse instructs the client that a diagnosis of breast cancer is confirmed by:
- A. Breast self-examination
- B. Fine needle aspiration
- C. Mammography
- D. Chest x-ray
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A diagnosis of breast cancer is confirmed through a biopsy, which involves removing a sample of tissue or cells from the lump in the breast and examining it under a microscope. Fine needle aspiration is a minimally invasive procedure where a thin needle is used to remove cells from the lump for examination. This diagnostic method allows for the confirmation of breast cancer by analyzing the cells for signs of malignancy. While breast self-examinations, mammography, and chest x-rays are important tools for detecting breast abnormalities, they are not definitive in confirming a diagnosis of breast cancer.
For which of the ff conditions would the use of salt tablets be considered?
- A. a. Mild deficits of serum sodium
- B. Severe deficits of serum magnesium
- C. Severe deficits of serum potassium
- D. Severe deficits of serum calcium
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Salt tablets should be considered for mild deficits of serum sodium. Salt tablets contain sodium chloride, which helps increase the sodium levels in the body. In cases of mild deficits of serum sodium, also known as hyponatremia, salt tablets can help replenish the sodium levels and correct the electrolyte imbalance. However, for severe deficits of serum magnesium, potassium, or calcium, other specific electrolyte replacement therapies are usually preferred over salt tablets. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment of electrolyte imbalances.
The staff nurse in a regional hospital is aware that a dose of parenteral ampicillin must be administered within how many hours after it has been mixed?
- A. 1 hour
- B. 4 hours
- C. 2 hours
- D. 8 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct administration time frame for a dose of parenteral ampicillin after it has been mixed is within 4 hours. This is based on the stability and compatibility of ampicillin when it is mixed and prepared for injection. Beyond 4 hours, the effectiveness and safety of the medication may be compromised due to potential degradation or contamination. It is crucial for healthcare providers to adhere to the recommended administration time frame to ensure the patient receives the full therapeutic benefits of the medication and to prevent any negative outcomes associated with the degradation of the drug.