Nokea
The effectiveness of Levodopa can be reduced when taking:
- A. Pyridoxine
- B. Bromocriptine
- C. Amantadine
- D. Amantadine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pyridoxine. Pyridoxine can reduce the effectiveness of Levodopa by converting it into dopamine before it reaches the brain, decreasing the therapeutic effects. Bromocriptine and Amantadine are actually used in combination with Levodopa to enhance its effects by different mechanisms. Choosing Amantadine as the answer is incorrect because it is listed twice in the choices and would not interfere with Levodopa's effectiveness.
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What should a male client over age 50 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer?
- A. Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly
- B. Have a transrectal ultrasound every 5 years
- C. Perform monthly testicular self-examinations, especially after age 50
- D. Have a complete blood count (CBC) and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly. This is because regular screening with both tests can help detect prostate cancer early. The digital rectal exam allows the doctor to feel for any abnormalities in the prostate gland, while the PSA test measures the levels of a specific protein produced by the prostate gland. If there are any concerning findings, further diagnostic tests can be done to confirm prostate cancer.
Choice B is incorrect because transrectal ultrasound is not a recommended screening test for prostate cancer. Choice C is incorrect as testicular self-examinations are for detecting testicular cancer, not prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as CBC, BUN, and creatinine levels are not specific tests for prostate cancer screening.
A client is diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). After recovering from the initial shock of the diagnosis, the client expresses a desire to learn as much as possible about HIV and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). When teaching the client about the immune system, the nurse states that adaptive immunity is provide by which type of white blood cell?
- A. Neutrophil
- B. Monocyte
- C. Basophil
- D. Lymphocyte
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lymphocyte. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in adaptive immunity. They include T cells and B cells, which are responsible for recognizing and attacking specific pathogens. T cells help regulate the immune response and directly attack infected cells, while B cells produce antibodies to target pathogens. Neutrophils (A), monocytes (B), and basophils (C) are important for innate immunity, not adaptive immunity. Neutrophils are phagocytic cells that engulf and destroy pathogens, monocytes differentiate into macrophages to engulf pathogens, and basophils are involved in allergic reactions. Therefore, the correct answer is D because lymphocytes are key players in adaptive immunity.
Which of the following terms would indicate to the nurse that a substance is toxic to the ear?
- A. Otoplasty
- B. Ototoxic
- C. Otalgia
- D. Tinnitus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ototoxic. Ototoxic refers to substances that are harmful to the ear, potentially causing hearing loss or damage. The prefix "oto-" specifically relates to the ear. Otoplasty (A) is a surgical procedure to reshape the ear, not related to toxicity. Otalgia (C) refers to ear pain, not toxicity. Tinnitus (D) is a symptom of ringing in the ears, not directly related to toxicity. Therefore, the term "ototoxic" is the best indicator of a substance being toxic to the ear due to its specific reference to ear toxicity.
A client receiving external radiation to the left thorax to treat lung cancer has a nursing diagnosis of Risk for impaired skin integrity. Which intervention should be part of this client’s plan of care?
- A. Avoiding using a soap on the irradiated areas
- B. Applying talcum powder to the irradiated areas daily after bathing
- C. Wearing a lead apron during direct contact with the client
- D. Removing thoracic skin markings after each radiation treatment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoiding using soap on the irradiated areas. Soap can irritate the skin and exacerbate the risk for impaired skin integrity in a client receiving radiation therapy. By avoiding soap, we minimize the risk of skin breakdown and promote skin healing.
B: Applying talcum powder can actually worsen skin irritation and should be avoided.
C: Wearing a lead apron is not relevant to the nursing diagnosis of risk for impaired skin integrity.
D: Removing thoracic skin markings is not necessary for skin integrity and may disrupt the treatment plan.
A client is admitted with a serum glucose of 618mg/dl. The client is awake and oriented, with hot, dry skin; a temperature of 100.6F (38.1 C); a heart rate of 116beats/min; and a blood pressure of 108/70mmHg. Based on these findings, which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority?
- A. Deficient fluid volume related to osmotic diuresis
- B. Decreased cardiac output related to increased heart rate
- C. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to insulin deficiency
- D. Ineffective thermoregulation related to dehydration
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Deficient fluid volume related to osmotic diuresis. With a serum glucose level of 618mg/dl, the client is likely experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis, leading to excessive urination (osmotic diuresis) and dehydration. The priority is to address fluid volume deficit to prevent hypovolemic shock. The other options are not the priority because: B: Decreased cardiac output is a result of the increased heart rate, not the primary issue. C: Imbalanced nutrition is important but not as urgent as fluid volume deficit. D: Ineffective thermoregulation is a concern but not the priority in this scenario.