Nokea
The elderly client is admitted to the emergency department from a long-term care facility. The client has multiple ecchymotic areas on the body. The client is receiving digoxin, a cardiac glycoside; Lasix, a loop diuretic; Coumadin, an anticoagulant; and Xanax, an antianxiety medication. Which order should the nurse request from the health-care provider?
- A. A STAT serum potassium level.
- B. An order to admit to the hospital for observation.
- C. An order to administer Valium intravenous push.
- D. A STAT international normalized ratio (INR).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ecchymosis with Coumadin suggests bleeding risk; STAT INR assesses anticoagulation status, guiding reversal if needed. Potassium, admission, or Valium are less urgent.
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To which client would the nurse question administering the osmotic diuretic mannitol (Osmitrol)?
- A. The client with 4+ pitting pedal edema.
- B. The client with decorticate posturing.
- C. The client with widening pulse pressure.
- D. The client with a positive doll's eye test.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Widening pulse pressure suggests increased intracranial pressure, a contraindication for mannitol due to potential brain herniation. Edema or neurological signs are indications.
The client diagnosed with angina must receive a two (2)-inch nitroglycerin paste (Nitro-Bid) application. Which interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.
- A. Wear gloves when administering.
- B. Remove the old Nitro-Bid paper.
- C. Apply the paper on a hairy spot.
- D. Put medication only on the legs.
- E. Report any headache to the HCP.
Correct Answer: A,B
Rationale: Gloves prevent nurse absorption, and removing old paste ensures accurate dosing. Hairy spots reduce adhesion, leg-only application is incorrect, and headaches are expected.
Prior to administering Alteplase (TPA) to a client admitted for a cerebral vascular accident (CVA), it is critical that the nurse assess:
- A. Neuro signs
- B. Mental status
- C. Blood pressure
- D. PT/PTT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: PT/PTT. TPA is a potent thrombolytic enzyme. Because bleeding is the most common side effect, it is most essential to evaluate clotting studies including PT, PTT, APTT, platelets, and hematocrit before beginning therapy.
An adult client is being treated for genital herpes with acyclovir (Zovirax) tablets. Which statement she makes indicates that she understands her therapy?
- A. It is safe now to have sexual relations.
- B. I will stay home from work until the blisters are gone.
- C. This medicine will cure the herpes infection.
- D. If the blisters come back, I will start taking the pills immediately.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acyclovir reduces symptoms and recurrence of herpes but does not cure it. Starting treatment at recurrence is appropriate.
Keflex 250 mg PO q6h is ordered for an adult. The nurse notes that the client's history indicates that she has an allergy to penicillin. What is the most appropriate initial action for the nurse?
- A. Notify the physician
- B. Observe the client carefully after giving the medication
- C. Administer the Keflex IV instead of PO
- D. Ask the client to describe the reaction that she had to penicillin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: There is often a cross-allergy between penicillin and cephalosporins like Keflex. The nurse should first determine the type of reaction to assess if Keflex is safe.