Nokea
The end of the vas deferens is a dilated sac called the _____.
- A. ductus deferens
- B. seminal vesicle
- C. ampulla
- D. ejaculatory duct
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: ampulla. The ampulla is a dilated portion at the end of the vas deferens where it joins with the duct of the seminal vesicle to form the ejaculatory duct. This structure serves as a storage and mixing area for sperm and seminal fluid before ejaculation. The other choices, A: ductus deferens, is another name for the vas deferens itself; B: seminal vesicle is a gland that produces seminal fluid but is not the dilated sac at the end of the vas deferens; D: ejaculatory duct is formed by the union of the vas deferens and the duct of the seminal vesicle, it is not the dilated sac itself.
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The egg is fertilized in which anatomical structure?
- A. Vagina
- B. Uterus
- C. uterine (fallopian) tube
- D. cervix
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uterus. After fertilization, the egg travels through the fallopian tube and implants in the uterus for further development. The vagina is the birth canal, not the site of fertilization. The fallopian tube is where fertilization typically occurs, but the actual implantation of the fertilized egg occurs in the uterus. The cervix is the lower part of the uterus that connects to the vagina and plays a role in pregnancy but is not where fertilization occurs.
At the level of the testicle, the efferent ducts:
- A. continue the rete testis;
- B. open in the epididymal duct;
- C. open in the deferent duct;
- D. are 30;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A: The efferent ducts continue the rete testis. This is true because the efferent ducts are a series of small ducts that connect the rete testis to the epididymis. The rete testis is a network of tubules located at the back of the testicle where spermatozoa from the seminiferous tubules are collected. Therefore, the efferent ducts serve to transport spermatozoa from the rete testis to the epididymis for further maturation.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Opening in the epididymal duct is incorrect because the efferent ducts lead into the epididymis, not the epididymal duct itself.
C: Opening in the deferent duct is incorrect because the efferent ducts do not lead directly into the deferent duct, but rather connect the rete testis to the epididym
The process when the ovarian follicle ruptures and releases an ovum is called ___________.
- A. Menopause
- B. ovulation
- C. Implantation
- D. Breast
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: ovulation. Ovulation is the process where the ovarian follicle ruptures and releases an ovum. This occurs around the middle of the menstrual cycle. Menopause (A) is the cessation of menstrual periods, not the release of an ovum. Implantation (C) is the attachment of a fertilized egg to the uterine wall, not the release of an ovum. Breast (D) is not related to the process of ovulation.
A 15 year old high school football player is in your clinic, c/o severe testicular pain since 8 am this morning. Denies sexual activity. Unable to urinate due to pain. He is nauseated and is vomiting. He is lying on the exam table, uncomfortably shifting his position. His BP is 150/100, pulse is 110, respirations are 24. There are no lesions on the penis and no discharge from the meatus. The scrotal skin is tense and red. Palpation of the left testicle causes severe pain and the patient begins to cry. Prostate exam is normal. His cremasteric reflex is absent on the left but is normal on the right. Urine sample (by catheter) is normal. You send him to the emergency room. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Acute orchitis
- B. Acute epididymitis
- C. Torsion of the spermatic cord
- D. Prostatitis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct diagnosis is torsion of the spermatic cord. This condition presents with sudden severe testicular pain, nausea, vomiting, high blood pressure, tachycardia, and absence of cremasteric reflex. The key findings include red, tense scrotal skin, severe pain on palpation, and crying. The absence of discharge and normal prostate exam rule out prostatitis. Acute orchitis typically presents with fever and urinary symptoms, which are absent here. Acute epididymitis usually presents with gradual onset and urinary symptoms. Torsion of the spermatic cord is a surgical emergency requiring immediate intervention to prevent testicular ischemia and necrosis.
During a history, a patient reports rectal bleeding, a warning sign of colorectal cancer. The nurse correlates which clinical finding with colorectal cancer?
- A. Thick, blood-tinged mucus within the rectum
- B. A pus-filled cavity in the anorectal area
- C. An irregular mass with raised edges on the rectal wall
- D. A small, smooth nodule protruding from the rectum
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an irregular mass with raised edges on the rectal wall is a common clinical finding associated with colorectal cancer. This mass could be a tumor or polyp, which can lead to rectal bleeding. Option A is incorrect because thick, blood-tinged mucus is more commonly associated with inflammatory conditions. Option B is incorrect as a pus-filled cavity suggests an abscess or infection, not colorectal cancer. Option D is incorrect because a small, smooth nodule is more indicative of hemorrhoids rather than colorectal cancer.