Nokea
Which client teaching instruction is necessary for a pregnant client who is to undergo a glucose challenge test (GCT) as part of a routine pregnancy treatment plan at 28 weeks?
- A. No dietary restriction (done 24-28 weeks' gestation)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: No dietary restriction (done 24-28 weeks' gestation). This is because the glucose challenge test (GCT) is typically performed between 24-28 weeks of gestation to screen for gestational diabetes. It is important not to have any dietary restrictions before the test to ensure accurate results. Restricting food intake before the test can lead to false results. Other choices are incorrect because they do not align with the standard practice of performing the GCT between 24-28 weeks and avoiding dietary restrictions before the test.
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The nurse is educating a client about folic acid during pregnancy. What food should the nurse recommend?
- A. Citrus fruits.
- B. Leafy green vegetables.
- C. Dairy products.
- D. Lean meats.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Leafy green vegetables. Folic acid is essential during pregnancy for proper fetal development. Leafy green vegetables like spinach, kale, and broccoli are rich sources of folic acid. Citrus fruits (Choice A) contain vitamin C but not as much folic acid as leafy greens. Dairy products (Choice C) provide calcium but are not significant sources of folic acid. Lean meats (Choice D) are good sources of protein but do not contain as much folic acid as leafy green vegetables. Therefore, recommending leafy green vegetables ensures the client gets an adequate intake of folic acid during pregnancy.
The nurse provides education regarding male sterilization. What important information is provided?
- A. “Many people have vasectomies reversed.â€
- B. “You will need to return to the office to check for sperm in your ejaculate.â€
- C. “You will be sterile after 3 months.â€
- D. “Vasectomy consent forms must have both partners’ consent.â€
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "You will need to return to the office to check for sperm in your ejaculate." This information is crucial as it ensures the success of the sterilization procedure. By checking for sperm in the ejaculate, the effectiveness of the vasectomy can be confirmed. This step is important to ensure that the individual is indeed sterile and can rely on the procedure for contraception.
Choice A is incorrect because vasectomy reversal is not always successful and should not be assumed. Choice C is incorrect as sterility is not immediate and may take several months after the procedure. Choice D is incorrect as consent forms for vasectomy typically require only the individual undergoing the procedure to give consent.
In summary, choice B is correct because it emphasizes the need for follow-up to confirm sterility, while the other choices provide incorrect or irrelevant information regarding male sterilization.
The nurse is preparing a client for a biophysical profile (BPP). What does this test evaluate?
- A. Maternal blood flow to the placenta.
- B. Fetal genetic abnormalities.
- C. Fetal well-being, including movements and amniotic fluid.
- D. Cervical dilation and effacement.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fetal well-being, including movements and amniotic fluid. A Biophysical Profile evaluates the fetus' health by assessing factors like fetal movements, muscle tone, breathing movements, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal heart rate patterns. This test provides valuable information about the fetus' well-being and helps in determining the need for interventions or further monitoring.
Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect:
A: Maternal blood flow to the placenta is not evaluated by a Biophysical Profile.
B: Fetal genetic abnormalities are not assessed through a BPP; it focuses on the fetus' current well-being.
D: Cervical dilation and effacement are related to labor progress and not part of a BPP, which focuses on fetal well-being.
A patient has just acknowledged that she is 20 weeks pregnant and confides to the nurse that she has a daily heroin habit. The nurse discusses treatment options for the patient. Which patient statement requires follow-up?
- A. "My plan is to visit the outpatient clinic daily for treatment."
- B. "will see my health care provider at least every 2 weeks."
- C. "My baby will not have to go through withdrawal when I take methadone."
- D. "With oral methadone, my baby and I are at decreased risk of infection."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because seeing the healthcare provider every 2 weeks may not be frequent enough for monitoring a pregnant patient with a heroin habit. Regular monitoring is crucial for the well-being of both the mother and the baby. Option A shows a proactive approach for daily treatment, Option C is incorrect as methadone does not eliminate the risk of withdrawal in newborns, and Option D is incorrect as methadone does not reduce the risk of infection. Regular and close monitoring is essential in such cases to ensure the safety and health of both the mother and the baby.
What is an advantage of the internal condom?
- A. It can be used by those who have a latex allergy.
- B. It can be used for repeated acts of intercourse.
- C. It has a lower failure rate than external condoms.
- D. It can be used for pleasure purposes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the internal condom is made of nitrile, which is a non-latex material. This makes it suitable for individuals with latex allergies. Choice B is incorrect because both internal and external condoms can be used for repeated acts of intercourse. Choice C is incorrect because internal condoms do not necessarily have a lower failure rate than external condoms. Choice D is incorrect because while condoms can enhance pleasure during intercourse, the primary purpose of the internal condom is for protection rather than pleasure.