Nokea
The following are transmitted as autosomal dominant traits:
- A. Congenital spherocytosis
- B. Vitamin D-resistant rickets
- C. CAH
- D. Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia is an autosomal dominant disorder. Congenital spherocytosis and Vitamin D-resistant rickets can also be autosomal dominant, but CAH (Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia) is typically autosomal recessive.
You may also like to solve these questions
In assessing a client with ulcers on the lower extremity, which findings indicate that the ulcers are likely to be of venous, rather than arterial, origin?
- A. Black ulcers and dependent rubor
- B. Irregular ulcer shapes and severe edema
- C. Absent pedal pulses and shiny skin
- D. Hairless lower extremities and cool feet
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Venous ulcers are typically irregular in shape and associated with severe edema, while arterial ulcers are more likely to present with absent pulses and cool extremities.
A client with unstable asthma had an emergent cardiac catheterization. Which complication should the nurse monitor for in the initial 24 hours after the procedure?
- A. Thrombus formation
- B. Infection
- C. Bronchospasm
- D. Heart failure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After a cardiac catheterization, the nurse must monitor for thrombus formation as it is a common complication in the first 24 hours.
The most common site of osteosarcoma is:
- A. Femur
- B. Humerus
- C. Pelvis
- D. Skull
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Osteosarcoma most commonly occurs in the long bones, particularly the femur, near the growth plates in children and adolescents.
A nurse assists a male client with Parkinson's disease (PD) to ambulate in the hallway. The client appears to 'freeze' and then carefully lifts one leg and steps forward. He tells the nurse that he is pretending to step over a crack on the floor. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Re-orient the client to his present location and circumstances
- B. Confirm that this is an effective technique to help with ambulation
- C. Assist the client to a carpeted area where he can walk more easily
- D. Plan to assess the client's cognition after returning to his room
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pretending to step over a crack is a known technique that can help clients with PD overcome freezing episodes.
The most common cause for testicular pain in boys in 2-10 years of age is
- A. Testicular torsion
- B. Torsion of appendix testis
- C. Epididymitis
- D. Congenital varicocele
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Torsion of the appendix testis is the most common cause of testicular pain in boys aged 2-10 years, as it involves the twisting of a small vestigial remnant.