The Freudian explanation of anxiety disorders emphasizes
- A. the avoidance paradox
- B. learned habits of self-defeating behavior
- C. forbidden impulses that threaten a loss of control
- D. the development of a faulty or inaccurate self-image and distorted self-perceptions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Freud viewed anxiety as stemming from repressed impulses threatening to surface, disrupting control.
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A patient has schizophrenia and is troubled by negative symptoms, muscle stiffness, and motor restlessness. His Advanced Practice Nurse (APN) is considering changing the patient's antipsychotic medication, haloperidol (Haldol, a typical or first generation antipsychotic drug). For planning purposes, which medication can the nurse assume that the APN will probably choose?
- A. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
- B. Clozapine (Clozaril)
- C. Olanzapine (Zyprexa)
- D. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Olanzapine (Zyprexa). Olanzapine is an atypical or second-generation antipsychotic known for effectively treating negative symptoms, muscle stiffness, and motor restlessness in schizophrenia. It has a lower risk of extrapyramidal side effects compared to typical antipsychotics like haloperidol. Chlorpromazine (A) is a typical antipsychotic with similar side effect profiles as haloperidol. Clozapine (B) is an atypical antipsychotic but is typically reserved for treatment-resistant cases due to its potential for serious side effects. Fluoxetine (D) is an antidepressant and not typically used for treating the symptoms described in the question. Therefore, the APN will likely choose Olanzapine to address the patient's symptoms effectively with a lower risk of side effects.
Which of the following medications would NOT be recommended for prescription by a Family Doctor for a depressed adolescent who also has panic attacks?
- A. Sertraline
- B. Amitriptyline
- C. Propranolol
- D. Lorazepam
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, is not recommended for adolescents due to dependency risks; SSRIs like Sertraline are preferred.
A patient remanded by the court after his wife had him jailed for battery told the judge how sorry he was and suggested he needed psychiatric help. His history reveals acting-out behaviors as an adolescent and several adult arrests. The nurse interviews him about his relationship with his wife. Which statement by the patient is most consistent with a diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder?
- A. I've done some stupid things in my life, but I've learned a lesson.'
- B. I'm feeling terrible about the way my behavior has hurt my family.'
- C. I have a quick temper, but I can usually keep it under control.'
- D. I hit her because she nags at me. She deserves it when I beat her up.'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it demonstrates a lack of remorse, empathy, and justification for violent behavior, which are key characteristics of antisocial personality disorder. The statement indicates a pattern of blaming others for his actions and a sense of entitlement to use violence as a means of control.
Choice A is incorrect because it shows acknowledgment of past mistakes and a willingness to learn from them, which is not typical of individuals with antisocial personality disorder. Choice B is incorrect as it reflects genuine regret and concern for the impact of his actions, which is inconsistent with the disorder. Choice C is incorrect because it implies an ability to control his temper, whereas individuals with antisocial personality disorder often struggle with impulsivity and aggression.
An elderly patient with dementia paces the hallway and often engages in wandering. The nurse documents that the patient is exhibiting which type of behavior that is characteristic of dementia?
- A. Passive behavior
- B. Functionally impaired behavior
- C. Involuntary psychomotor behavior
- D. Nonaggressive psychomotor behavior
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nonaggressive psychomotor behavior. In dementia, wandering and pacing are common behaviors due to cognitive impairment. Nonaggressive behavior refers to actions that do not involve harm or aggression towards others. The patient's behavior is voluntary and purposeless, indicating psychomotor involvement. Choices A, B, and C do not accurately describe the behavior exhibited by the patient with dementia. Passive behavior implies lack of engagement, functionally impaired behavior suggests difficulty performing activities of daily living, and involuntary psychomotor behavior implies actions beyond the patient's control, which are not the case in this scenario.
In addition to antidepressants, which of the following is usual treatment for postpartum depression?
- A. Antipsychotics
- B. Psychotherapy
- C. Hormone replacement
- D. Temporary removal of the baby from the home
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Psychotherapy (B) along with antidepressants are the major treatments for postpartum depression. Patients usually are not psychotic (A), hormone replacement (C) is not indicated, and mother and baby should be kept together with support (D).
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