Nokea
The gag reflex test assesses which cranial nerves?
- A. IX and X
- B. V and VII
- C. IX and XII
- D. V and X
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Gagging during the gag reflex test indicates that cranial nerves IX and X (the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves) are intact.
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The primary organ for drug elimination is the:
- A. Skin
- B. Lung(s)
- C. Kidney(s)
- D. Liver
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The kidneys are the primary organ for drug elimination, excreting most drugs or their metabolites in urine.
A nurse who is assessing the health-related physical fitness of a client as part of a health assessment should focus on which of the following aspects of the assessment?
- A. agility
- B. speed
- C. body composition
- D. risk factors
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A health assessment should focus on possible risk factors of the client.
When a couple experiencing infertility presents for a fertility workup, which of the following procedures should the nurse prepare the couple to have first?
- A. hysterosalpingography
- B. semen analysis
- C. endometrial biopsy
- D. transvaginal ultrasound
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Because semen analysis is the least invasive of the tests listed and because in 35% of the cases the infertility is related to a male factor, semen analysis should be one of the first diagnostic tests performed. Hysterosalpingography fills the uterus and fallopian tubes with a radiopaque substance that can be seen with an X ray. It demonstrates tubal patency or any distortion of the uterine cavity. Endometrial biopsy provides information about the effects of progesterone after ovulation and the endometrial receptivity. Transvaginal ultrasound is mostly used in the treatment of infertility. For diagnosis it allows the endocrinologist to evaluate the developing follicle, assess oocyte maturity, and diagnose luteal phase defects. All the tests listed in Choices 1, 3, and 4 are more invasive, require greater expertise to evaluate and treat, and are more costly. If the semen analysis is normal, the couple can expect to progress through these tests as well.
A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
- A. naloxone (Narcan)
- B. labetalol (Normodyne)
- C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
- D. thiothixene (Navane)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence by antagonizing opioid receptors. The other drugs do not address opioid overdose.
A patient has fallen off a bicycle and fractured the head of the proximal fibula. A cast was placed on the patient's lower extremity. Which of the following is the most probable result of the fall?
- A. Peroneal nerve injury
- B. Tibial nerve injury
- C. Sciatic nerve injury
- D. Femoral nerve injury
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The head of the proximal fibula is in close proximity to the peroneal nerve.