While neuromuscular blocking agents are used in the management of some ventilated patients what is their primary mode of action?
- A. Analgesia
- B. Anticonvulsant
- C. Paralysis
- D. Sedation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Paralysis. Neuromuscular blocking agents work by blocking the transmission of nerve impulses at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle paralysis. This is essential in ventilated patients to facilitate mechanical ventilation and prevent patient-ventilator dyssynchrony.
Rationale:
A: Analgesia - Neuromuscular blocking agents do not provide pain relief. They do not have any direct analgesic properties.
B: Anticonvulsant - Neuromuscular blocking agents do not prevent or treat seizures. They do not have anticonvulsant effects.
D: Sedation - While sedatives may be used in conjunction with neuromuscular blocking agents, the primary mode of action of these agents is muscle paralysis, not sedation.
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The nurse is caring for an elderly patient who was admitted with renal insufficiency. An expected laboratory finding for this patient may be
- A. an increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
- B. a normal serum creatinine level.
- C. increased ability to excrete drugs.
- D. hypokalemia.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: a normal serum creatinine level. In renal insufficiency, the kidneys are not able to filter waste products effectively, leading to an increase in serum creatinine levels. This is a common indicator of renal dysfunction.
A: An increased GFR would not be expected in renal insufficiency, as it signifies improved kidney function.
C: Increased ability to excrete drugs is not a typical finding in renal insufficiency, as impaired kidney function can lead to drug accumulation.
D: Hypokalemia is not directly related to renal insufficiency. It is more commonly associated with factors like diuretic use or gastrointestinal losses.
The nurse caring for a mechanically ventilated patient note s the high pressure alarm sounding but cannot quickly identify the cause of the alarm. The nurasbeir bn.cootme/ste stht e patient’s oxygen saturation is decreasing and heart rate and respiratory rate are increasing. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Ask the respiratory therapist to get a new ventilator
- B. Call the rapid response team to assess the patient
- C. Continue to find the cause of the alarm and fix it
- D. Manually ventilate the patient while calling for a respi ratory therapist
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse's priority is to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Calling the rapid response team will allow for immediate assessment by a team of healthcare professionals to address the deteriorating condition. This step takes precedence over troubleshooting the ventilator or manually ventilating the patient. Asking for a new ventilator (A) or manually ventilating the patient (D) does not address the urgent need for a comprehensive assessment and intervention. Continuing to troubleshoot the alarm (C) can delay critical interventions needed for the patient's worsening condition. Thus, calling the rapid response team is the most appropriate action to address the escalating clinical situation promptly.
To maintain proper cuff pressure of an endotracheal tube (ET) when the patient is on mechanical ventilation, the nurse should:
- A. Inflate the cuff with a minimum of 10 mL of air.
- B. Inflate the cuff until the pilot balloon is firm on palpation.
- C. Inject air into the cuff until a manometer shows 15 mm Hg pressure.
- D. Inject air into the cuff until a slight leak is heard only at peak inflation.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because inflating the cuff until a slight leak is heard only at peak inflation ensures it is adequately sealed but not overinflated, preventing complications like tracheal injury or pressure necrosis. Choice A lacks specificity and can lead to overinflation. Choice B may result in overinflation as the firmness of the balloon is subjective. Choice C relies on a specific pressure reading, which may vary based on factors like tube size and patient anatomy, potentially leading to under- or overinflation.
During the primary assessment of a victim of a motor vehicle collision, the nurse determines that the patient is breathing and has an unobstructed airway. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Palpate extremities for bilateral pulses.
- B. Observe the patient’s respiratory effort.
- C. Check the patient’s level of consciousness.
- D. Examine the patient for any external bleeding.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: The correct action is to observe the patient's respiratory effort next. This step ensures that the patient's breathing remains stable and adequate. If respiratory effort is compromised, immediate intervention is required. Checking for bilateral pulses (A) is important but comes after ensuring respiratory status. Checking level of consciousness (C) is also crucial but not as immediate as monitoring breathing. Examining for external bleeding (D) is important but not the priority when airway and breathing are already determined to be clear.
A triage nurse in a busy emergency department (ED) assesses a patient who complains of 7/10 abdominal pain and states, 'I had a temperature of 103.9°F (39.9°C) at home.' The nurse’s first action should be to:
- A. Assess the patient’s current vital signs.
- B. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) per agency protocol.
- C. Ask the patient to provide clean-catch urine for urinalysis.
- D. Tell the patient that it will be 1 to 2 hours before being seen by the doctor.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess the patient's current vital signs. The nurse's first action should be to gather objective data to assess the patient's condition and determine the urgency of the situation. Vital signs, including temperature, heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate, provide crucial information for the initial assessment. This will help the nurse identify any signs of sepsis, shock, or other serious conditions that require immediate intervention.
The other choices are incorrect because:
B: Giving acetaminophen without assessing the patient's vital signs and determining the cause of the symptoms could mask important clinical information and delay appropriate treatment.
C: While obtaining a urine sample may be necessary later to rule out a urinary tract infection, it is not the most immediate priority in this case.
D: Delaying the patient's assessment and care based on estimated wait times is not appropriate when the patient presents with potentially serious symptoms. Immediate evaluation is required in this scenario.