The healthcare professional in the Emergency Room is treating a patient suspected to have a Peptic Ulcer. On assessing lab results, the healthcare professional finds that the patient's blood pressure is 95/60, pulse is 110 beats per minute, and the patient reports epigastric pain. What is the PRIORITY intervention?
- A. Start a large-bore IV in the patient's arm
- B. Ask the patient for a stool sample
- C. Prepare to insert an NG Tube
- D. Administer intramuscular morphine sulfate as ordered
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The priority intervention in this scenario is to start a large-bore IV in the patient's arm. The patient's low blood pressure (95/60) and elevated pulse rate (110 beats per minute) indicate a potential hemorrhage, requiring immediate fluid resuscitation. Starting a large-bore IV will allow for rapid administration of fluids to stabilize the patient's condition. Asking for a stool sample, preparing to insert an NG tube, or administering morphine sulfate should not take precedence over addressing the hemodynamic instability and potential hemorrhage observed in the patient. These actions may be considered later in the patient's care, but the primary focus should be on addressing the critical issue of fluid replacement and stabilization.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client is in the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) shivering despite being covered with several layers of blankets. What is the nurse's next action?
- A. Turn the client to the prone position
- B. Assist the client in breathing deeply
- C. Administer meperidine as ordered
- D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the post-anesthesia care unit, clients may experience shivering or chills due to a drop in body temperature after surgery. Meperidine (Demerol) can be prescribed to alleviate shivering in cold clients. The prone position (lying face down) and deep breathing exercises are not interventions specifically indicated for addressing shivering due to low body temperature. Therefore, administering meperidine as ordered is the most appropriate action to manage the client's shivering in this scenario.
Which finding indicates to the nurse that a patient's transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) placed 3 months ago has been effective?
- A. Increased serum albumin level
- B. Decreased indirect bilirubin level
- C. Improved alertness and orientation
- D. Fewer episodes of bleeding varices
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fewer episodes of bleeding varices.' A transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) is used to reduce pressure in the portal venous system, thus decreasing the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This outcome would indicate the effectiveness of the TIPS procedure. The other choices are incorrect because: Increased serum albumin level and decreased indirect bilirubin level are not direct indicators of TIPS effectiveness. Improved alertness and orientation could be influenced by various factors and may not directly correlate with the effectiveness of the TIPS procedure. Additionally, TIPS can actually increase the risk of hepatic encephalopathy, which contradicts the choice of improved alertness and orientation.
Which finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider about a patient who received a liver transplant 1 week ago?
- A. Dry palpebral and oral mucosa
- B. Crackles at bilateral lung bases
- C. Temperature 100.8?F (38.2?C)
- D. No bowel movement for 4 days
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is the patient's temperature of 100.8°F (38.2°C). In a patient who received a liver transplant 1 week ago, a fever is a significant finding that should be promptly communicated to the health care provider. Post-transplant patients are at high risk of infections, and fever can often be the initial indicator of an underlying infectious process. The other findings listed in choices A, B, and D are important and should be addressed, but they do not take precedence over a potential infection post-liver transplant. Dry palpebral and oral mucosa may indicate dehydration, crackles at bilateral lung bases may suggest fluid overload or infection, and no bowel movement for 4 days could indicate a bowel obstruction or ileus. However, in the context of a recent liver transplant, an elevated temperature is the most concerning and requires immediate attention to rule out infection.
What is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient experiencing a migraine headache?
- A. Acute pain related to biologic and chemical factors
- B. Anxiety related to change in or threat to health status
- C. Hopelessness related to deteriorating physiological condition
- D. Risk for side effects related to medical therapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a patient experiencing a migraine headache is 'Acute pain related to biologic and chemical factors.' Migraine headaches are characterized by severe throbbing pain, often accompanied by sensitivity to light and sound. Addressing the acute pain is crucial to improve the patient's comfort and quality of life. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority nursing diagnoses for a patient with a migraine headache. Anxiety, hopelessness, and risk for side effects may not be as urgent as managing the acute pain associated with a migraine.
Following a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) in their 6-year-old child, the parent's remark: "We just don't know how he caught the disease!"? The nurse's response is based on an understanding that:
- A. AGN is a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules.
- B. The disease is easily transmissible in schools and camps.
- C. The illness is usually associated with chronic respiratory infections.
- D. It is not "caught"? but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) is not 'caught' but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection. AGN is generally accepted as an immune-complex disease triggered by an antecedent streptococcal infection occurring 4 to 6 weeks prior. It is considered a noninfectious renal disease. Choice A is incorrect because AGN is not a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules but rather a noninfectious renal disease. Choice B is incorrect as AGN is not easily transmissible in schools and camps but is a result of a previous streptococcal infection. Choice C is incorrect as AGN is not usually associated with chronic respiratory infections, but with a previous streptococcal infection.