Nokea
The healthcare professional is assessing a client with hypertension. Which client outcome is indicative of effective hypertension management?
- A. Absence of pedal edema in the lower legs.
- B. Absence of complaints of sexual dysfunction.
- C. No indication of renal impairment.
- D. Blood pressure reading of 148/94 mm Hg.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'No indication of renal impairment.' Effective hypertension management aims to prevent complications such as renal impairment. Checking for signs of kidney issues, like abnormal renal function tests, is crucial in monitoring the client's condition. Choices A, B, and D are not specific indicators of effective hypertension management. Pedal edema, sexual dysfunction, and a single blood pressure reading are important but do not solely determine the effectiveness of managing hypertension.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is caring for a client who has had surgery the previous day. The client tells the nurse, "Breathing in using this thing (incentive spirometer) is a ridiculous waste of time."? What is the nurse's best response?
- A. "The spirometer will help you cough effectively."?
- B. "The spirometer will help your lungs expand."?
- C. "The spirometer will help prevent blood clots."?
- D. "The spirometer will improve blood flow in your lungs."?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is, '"The spirometer will help your lungs expand."?' Incentive spirometry is used postoperatively to help prevent atelectasis by expanding the lungs and improving lung function. Choice A is incorrect because the primary purpose of the spirometer is not to help cough effectively. Choice C is incorrect because while deep breathing with the spirometer can indirectly help prevent blood clots by improving lung function, its primary purpose is not to prevent blood clots directly. Choice D is incorrect because although using the spirometer can improve ventilation and oxygenation, its main purpose is not to improve blood flow in the lungs.
A client is diagnosed with varicella (chickenpox). The nurse places the client on which precautions?
- A. Airborne
- B. Standard
- C. Contact
- D. Droplet
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Airborne.' Varicella (chickenpox) is caused by the varicella-zoster virus, which spreads through the air by respiratory droplets. Therefore, placing the client on airborne precautions is necessary to prevent the transmission of the virus. Choice B, 'Standard precautions,' involve basic infection prevention measures that are used for all client care. Choice C, 'Contact precautions,' are used for diseases that spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice D, 'Droplet precautions,' are implemented for diseases transmitted by respiratory droplets that are larger than 5 microns.
The nurse teaches a client who is newly diagnosed with coronary artery disease. Which instruction does the nurse include to minimize complications of this disease?
- A. "Rest is the best medicine at this time. Do not start an exercise program."?
- B. "You are a man; therefore, there is nothing you can do to minimize your risks."?
- C. "You should talk to your provider about medications to help you quit smoking."?
- D. "Decreasing the carbohydrates in your diet will help you lose weight."?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to talk to their provider about medications to help quit smoking. Smoking is a major risk factor for coronary artery disease, and quitting smoking can significantly reduce the risk of complications. Choice A is incorrect because exercise is beneficial for managing coronary artery disease, but should be started gradually and under guidance. Choice B is incorrect and inappropriate as it undermines the client's ability to take control of their health. Choice D is incorrect because while a balanced diet is important, specifically targeting carbohydrates alone may not be the most effective or healthy approach for managing coronary artery disease.
The healthcare provider is assessing a client before surgery. Which assessments contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled? (Select one that does not apply.)
- A. Potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
- B. International normalized ratio (INR) of 4
- C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 30 seconds
- D. Positive pregnancy test
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT) of 30 seconds. A low potassium level (choice A) and an elevated INR (choice B) indicate potential bleeding risks during surgery. A positive pregnancy test (choice D) in a female client can lead to complications during surgery. However, a Prothrombin time of 30 seconds is within the normal range and does not contraindicate the client from having surgery as scheduled.
How does the nurse interpret the client's actions of combing her hair only on the right side of her head and washing only the right side of her face after a stroke?
- A. Poor left-sided motor control
- B. Paralysis or contractures on the right side
- C. Limited visual perception of the left fields
- D. Unawareness of the existence of her left side
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client's selective grooming and washing habits indicate a condition known as 'unawareness of the existence of her left side,' also called hemispatial neglect. This condition is characterized by a lack of awareness or attention to one side of the body or space, typically the left side in stroke patients. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the client's actions are not due to poor motor control, paralysis, contractures, or limited visual perception. Instead, they are indicative of a specific cognitive deficit related to neglecting one side of the body.