Nokea
The healthcare provider attaches a pulse oximeter to a client's fingers and obtains an oxygen saturation reading of 91%. Which assessment finding most likely contributes to this reading?
- A. BP 142/88 mmHg
- B. 2+ edema of fingers and hands
- C. Radial pulse volume is +3
- D. Capillary refill time is 2 seconds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Edema in the fingers and hands can impede the proper functioning of the pulse oximeter, leading to a falsely low oxygen saturation reading. Edema alters the transmission of light through the tissues, affecting the accuracy of the measurement. Therefore, the presence of edema in the fingers and hands is the most likely factor contributing to the low oxygen saturation reading of 91%.
You may also like to solve these questions
When assisting a client from the bed to a chair, which procedure is best for the nurse to follow?
- A. Place the chair parallel to the bed, with its back toward the head of the bed, and assist the client in moving to the chair.
- B. With the nurse's feet spread apart and knees aligned with the client's knees, stand and pivot the client into the chair.
- C. Assist the client to a standing position by gently lifting upward underneath the axillae.
- D. Stand beside the client, place the client's arms around the nurse's neck, and gently move the client to the chair.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Option B is the best procedure for the nurse to follow when assisting a client from the bed to a chair. This option emphasizes the correct positioning of the nurse with feet spread apart and knees aligned with the client's, providing a stable base of support. By standing and pivoting the client into the chair, the nurse can maintain control and stability, especially around the client's knees, ensuring a safe transfer.
When caring for an older incontinent client at risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection?
- A. Maintain standard precautions.
- B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
- C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
- D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for an older incontinent client at risk for infection is to maintain standard precautions. Standard precautions, which include proper handwashing, are essential in reducing the risk of infection transmission in vulnerable clients. Initiating contact isolation measures may not be necessary for all clients, and inserting an indwelling urinary catheter should be avoided unless medically necessary to prevent additional risks of infection. Instructing the client in the use of adult diapers is not an appropriate nursing intervention to prevent infection.
When culturing a wound, the nurse should obtain the sample from which part of the wound?
- A. The outer edges of the wound.
- B. All necrotic sections of the wound.
- C. Areas containing purulent or pooled exudates.
- D. Any particularly painful area of the wound.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A client with a suspected kidney infection is admitted to the hospital for observation. Which action should the nurse implement to assess the client's kidney function?
- A. Monitor the client's urine output
- B. Check for abdominal tenderness
- C. Evaluate the client's fluid intake
- D. Inspect the client's skin for edema
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring urine output is the most direct way to assess kidney function as it provides crucial information about the kidneys' ability to filter waste and produce urine. Changes in urine output can indicate potential issues with kidney function, such as decreased filtration or impaired excretion of waste products.
A client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline is instructed to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow?
- A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
- B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
- C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
- D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Theophylline should be administered on a regular around-the-clock schedule to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the potential for adverse effects. The correct dosing schedule of 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight ensures that the client receives consistent dosing throughout the day. Other options do not provide the necessary around-the-clock coverage. It's important to note that food may affect the absorption of the medication, which is why the dosing schedule should not be tied to meal times.