Nokea
The healthcare provider calculates the IV flow rate for a patient receiving lactated Ringer's solution. The patient needs to receive 2000mL of Lactated Ringer's over 36 hours. The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 15 drops per milliliter. How many drops per minute should the healthcare provider set the IV to deliver?
- A. 8
- B. 10
- C. 14
- D. 18
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To determine the drops per minute, we use the formula Drops Per Minute = (Milliliters x Drop Factor) / Time in Minutes. In this case, Drops Per Minute = (2000mL x 15 drops/mL) / (36 hours x 60 minutes/hour) = 30000 / 2160 = 13.89 (approximately 14). Therefore, the correct answer is 14 drops per minute. Choice A (8), Choice B (10), and Choice D (18) are incorrect as they do not correctly calculate the drops per minute based on the given information.
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In which part of the plan of care should a nurse record the item 'Encourage patient to attend one psychoeducational group daily'?
- A. Assessment
- B. Analysis
- C. Planning
- D. Implementation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Implementation.' In the nursing process, implementation involves carrying out the planned interventions to meet the patient's goals. Encouraging the patient to attend a psychoeducational group daily is an intervention aimed at building social skills. Assessment (choice A) is the phase where data about the patient's condition is collected. Analysis (choice B) involves interpreting the gathered data. Planning (choice C) is where the nurse decides on the interventions to address the patient's needs. Therefore, in this scenario, recording the item 'Encourage patient to attend one psychoeducational group daily' would be part of the implementation phase.
A child is diagnosed with a Greenstick Fracture. Which of the following most accurately describes the broken bone?
- A. compound fracture of the fibula
- B. a partial break in a long bone
- C. fracture of the growth plate of the ulna near the wrist
- D. Colles fracture of the tibia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A Greenstick Fracture is commonly found in children due to their bones being more flexible. This type of fracture occurs when a bone bends and partially breaks, resembling what happens when a green stick from a tree is bent in half. Therefore, the most accurate description of a Greenstick Fracture is 'a partial break in a long bone.' Choice A, 'compound fracture of the fibula,' is incorrect as a Greenstick Fracture is not a compound fracture. Choice C, 'fracture of the growth plate of the ulna near the wrist,' is incorrect as it describes a different type of fracture. Choice D, 'Colles fracture of the tibia,' is incorrect as it refers to a specific type of fracture in a different bone.
The nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a client post right cerebrovascular accident. Which finding, if observed by the nurse, would warrant immediate attention?
- A. Decrease in level of consciousness
- B. Loss of bladder control
- C. Altered sensation to stimuli
- D. Emotional lability
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in the level of consciousness is a critical finding that would warrant immediate attention in a client post right cerebrovascular accident. This change may indicate an increase in intracranial pressure, leading to inadequate oxygenation of the brain. It could also reveal the presence of a transient ischemic attack, which may signal an impending thrombotic cerebrovascular accident. Loss of bladder control (choice B) can be managed and monitored but does not indicate an immediate threat to the client's life. Altered sensation to stimuli (choice C) can be a concerning finding but may not require immediate attention unless it affects the client's safety. Emotional lability (choice D) may be distressing for the client but does not pose an immediate risk to their health compared to a decrease in the level of consciousness.
Which of the following statements made by a client during an individual therapy session would the nurse most identify as reflecting schizoaffective disorder?
- A. I just want to stab myself with this pen.''
- B. What's the point in life anyways?''
- C. My thoughts are racing because of the conspiracies against me.''
- D. I hear voices every day and sometimes see old friends that don't exist.''
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is, ''My thoughts are racing because of the conspiracies against me.'' Schizoaffective disorder combines the symptoms of bipolar disorder (mania and depression) with those of schizophrenia (delusions and disturbed thought processes). Racing thoughts are a characteristic symptom of a manic episode, while beliefs in conspiracies indicate paranoia, which are common in schizoaffective disorder. Choices A, B, and D do not specifically align with the symptoms of schizoaffective disorder. Choice A suggests self-harm, which may be seen in various mental health conditions; choice B reflects existential questioning or depression; and choice D describes hallucinations, which are more characteristic of schizophrenia rather than schizoaffective disorder.
You are caring for Thomas N., a 77-year-old man with edema in his legs and a fluid restriction. You have been assigned to weigh him daily. Based on these symptoms and the care he is receiving, what disorder is he most likely affected by?
- A. Diabetes
- B. Dementia
- C. Congestive heart failure
- D. Contiguous heart disease
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Thomas N.'s symptoms of edema in his legs and fluid restriction point towards congestive heart failure (CHF) rather than dementia or diabetes. In CHF, patients often present with dependent edema in their legs due to excessive blood volume, leading to fluid intake restrictions and a low-salt diet. Daily weight monitoring is crucial in CHF to assess fluid retention or loss. Diabetes primarily affects blood sugar levels, dementia is a cognitive disorder, and 'Contiguous heart disease' is not a recognized medical term, making choices A, B, and D incorrect in this scenario.