Nokea
The most significant clinical finding of acute adrenal crisis associated with fluid and electrolyte imbalance is
- A. fluid volume excess.
- B. hyperglycemia.
- C. hyperkalemia
- D. hypernatremia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (C: hyperkalemia):
1. Adrenal crisis leads to adrenal insufficiency, causing decreased cortisol levels.
2. Cortisol plays a crucial role in regulating potassium levels.
3. With decreased cortisol, potassium levels can rise, leading to hyperkalemia.
4. Hyperkalemia can result in life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias.
Summary:
A: Fluid volume excess is not typical in adrenal crisis.
B: Hyperglycemia can be present but is not the most significant finding.
D: Hypernatremia is not a typical feature of adrenal crisis.
You may also like to solve these questions
What is a minimally acceptable urine output for a patient weighing 75 kg?
- A. Less than 30 mL/hour
- B. 37 mL/hour
- C. 80 mL/hour
- D. 150 mL/hour
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (80 mL/hour) as it is considered a minimally acceptable urine output for a patient weighing 75 kg. Adequate urine output is crucial for kidney function and fluid balance. The general rule is to maintain a urine output of at least 0.5 mL/kg/hour, which in this case would be 37.5 mL/hour for a 75 kg patient. Option C (80 mL/hour) exceeds this minimum requirement, ensuring proper kidney perfusion and waste elimination. Options A (Less than 30 mL/hour) and D (150 mL/hour) are incorrect as they fall below or exceed the recommended urine output range, potentially indicating renal impairment or fluid overload, respectively. Option B (37 mL/hour) is close to the minimum requirement but does not provide a sufficient margin for variations in fluid status or kidney function.
In calculating the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) results for women, the creatinine clearance is usually:
- A. the same as for men.
- B. greater than that for men.
- C. multiplied by 0.85.
- D. multiplied by 1.15.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: the same as for men. GFR is calculated based on factors like age, weight, and serum creatinine levels, which are not directly influenced by gender. Therefore, the creatinine clearance for women is the same as for men. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because there is no inherent biological difference between men and women that would cause a difference in creatinine clearance for GFR calculation.
The nurse is assigned to care for a patient who presented to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis. A continuous insulin intravenous infusion is started, and hourly bedside glucose monitoring is ordered. The targeted blood glucose value after the first hour of therapy is
- A. 70 to 120 mg/dL.
- B. a decrease of 25 to 50 mg/dL compared with admitting values.
- C. a decrease of 35 to 90 mg/dL compared with admitting values.
- D. less than 200 mg/dL.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: a decrease of 35 to 90 mg/dL compared with admitting values. In diabetic ketoacidosis, there is severe hyperglycemia which needs to be corrected gradually to prevent complications like cerebral edema. A rapid decrease in glucose levels can lead to osmotic shifts and neurological issues. The targeted decrease of 35 to 90 mg/dL is considered safe and effective in managing hyperglycemia in these patients. This range ensures a controlled reduction in blood glucose levels without causing harm.
Choice A (70 to 120 mg/dL) is too broad and may lead to overly aggressive treatment. Choice B (a decrease of 25 to 50 mg/dL) is too conservative and may not adequately address the high glucose levels seen in diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice D (less than 200 mg/dL) does not provide a specific target range for glucose reduction, which is essential in managing diabetic ketoacidosis effectively.
Which of the following patients is at the highest risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome?
- A. An 18-year-old college student with type 1 diabetes who exercises excessively
- B. A 45-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes who forgets to take her insulin in the morning
- C. A 75-year-old man with type 2 diabetes and coronary artery disease who has recently started on insulin injections
- D. An 83-year-old, long-term care resident with type 2 diabetes and advanced Alzheimer’s disease who recently developed influenza
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the 83-year-old long-term care resident with type 2 diabetes and advanced Alzheimer's disease who recently developed influenza is at the highest risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS). This patient has multiple risk factors for HHS, including age, type 2 diabetes, advanced Alzheimer's disease, and the added stress of influenza, which can exacerbate hyperglycemia. The combination of these factors can lead to severe hyperglycemia, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances characteristic of HHS.
Choice A is incorrect because although excessive exercise can lead to hypoglycemia in individuals with type 1 diabetes, it is not a risk factor for HHS. Choice B is incorrect as forgetting to take insulin can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis in type 1 diabetes, not HHS. Choice C is incorrect as starting insulin injections in a patient with type 2 diabetes and coronary artery disease does not automatically increase the risk
The most common reasons for initiating dialysis in acute kidney injury include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Acidosis
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Volume overload
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Explanation:
A: Acidosis is a common reason to initiate dialysis in acute kidney injury due to impaired acid-base balance.
B: Hypokalemia is not a common reason for initiating dialysis in acute kidney injury.
C: Volume overload may require dialysis but is not as common as acidosis.
D: Hyperkalemia is a valid reason for dialysis but not as common as acidosis in acute kidney injury.