The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction. Which finding indicates that the client may have developed hypokalemia?
- A. Muscle weakness and cramps.
- B. Nausea and vomiting.
- C. Constipation.
- D. Increased blood pressure.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Muscle weakness and cramps are characteristic signs of hypokalemia, a condition marked by low levels of potassium in the blood. Potassium is essential for proper muscle function, and its deficiency can lead to muscle weakness and cramps. In the context of a client with a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction, the loss of potassium through suctioning can contribute to the development of hypokalemia. Nausea and vomiting (choice B) are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues rather than hypokalemia. Constipation (choice C) is not a typical finding of hypokalemia; instead, it can be a sign of other gastrointestinal problems. Increased blood pressure (choice D) is not a direct manifestation of hypokalemia; in fact, low potassium levels are more commonly associated with decreased blood pressure.
You may also like to solve these questions
The client with liver cirrhosis needs immediate intervention for which abnormal laboratory result?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) of 14 seconds.
- B. Bilirubin of 1.2 mg/dL.
- C. Albumin of 4 g/dL.
- D. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An elevated ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL indicates hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of liver cirrhosis that requires immediate intervention. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that accumulates in the blood due to impaired liver function, leading to cognitive impairment and altered mental status. Monitoring and lowering ammonia levels are crucial in managing hepatic encephalopathy to prevent further neurological deterioration. Prothrombin time, bilirubin, and albumin levels are important parameters in assessing liver function and overall health status in clients with liver cirrhosis, but an elevated ammonia level poses an immediate threat to neurological function and warrants prompt attention.
An 80-year-old client is given morphine sulfate for postoperative pain. Which concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development of urinary retention in this geriatric client?
- A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents.
- B. Antihistamines.
- C. Tricyclic antidepressants.
- D. Antibiotics.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tricyclic antidepressants. Drugs with anticholinergic properties, such as tricyclic antidepressants, can exacerbate urinary retention associated with opioids in older clients. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (Choice A) do not typically cause urinary retention. Antihistamines (Choice B) may cause urinary retention but are not the primary concern in this scenario. Antibiotics (Choice D) are not associated with an increased risk of urinary retention compared to tricyclic antidepressants.
The school nurse is conducting an audit of incident reports for adolescent students. Which finding is the best indication that the Healthy People 2020 objectives are being addressed?
- A. the absenteeism rate has increased greatly over the past two years
- B. during the last year fewer firearms were retrieved on school property
- C. the number of requests for pregnancy testing is higher than last year
- D. decline in the number of students enrolled in school during the year
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A decrease in firearms retrieved on school property is a positive indication that the Healthy People 2020 objectives are being addressed. This finding suggests progress in reducing violence and improving safety in schools, which aligns with the goals of promoting overall health and safety among adolescents. Choices A, C, and D do not directly relate to the Healthy People 2020 objectives. Increased absenteeism, higher requests for pregnancy testing, and a decline in student enrollment do not necessarily reflect the specific health and safety goals outlined in Healthy People 2020.
When planning a scoliosis screening clinic, which age group should be included?
- A. early adolescent girls
- B. late adolescent boys
- C. 7-10 year old boys
- D. preschoolers of both genders
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is early adolescent girls. Scoliosis is most commonly diagnosed during early adolescence, with girls being more affected than boys. Including early adolescent girls in the screening clinic aligns with the age group that is at higher risk for scoliosis. Late adolescent boys (choice B) are less likely to develop scoliosis compared to early adolescent girls. 7-10 year old boys (choice C) are typically younger than the age group where scoliosis is commonly diagnosed. Preschoolers of both genders (choice D) are too young for scoliosis screening as the condition usually manifests during adolescence.
A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted with pancreatitis. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Nausea and vomiting.
- B. Epigastric pain radiating to the back.
- C. Temperature of 102°F (38.9°C).
- D. Mild jaundice.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A temperature of 102°F (38.9°C) is the most important assessment finding to report to the healthcare provider in a client with pancreatitis and a history of alcoholism. Fever in this context can indicate infection, which is a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. Nausea and vomiting (choice A) are common symptoms of pancreatitis but may not require immediate intervention unless severe. Epigastric pain radiating to the back (choice B) is a classic symptom of pancreatitis and should be addressed, but a fever takes precedence. Mild jaundice (choice D) may be present in pancreatitis but is not as urgent as a high temperature signaling possible infection.