Nokea
The healthcare provider is assessing a client with Addison's disease. Which of the following symptoms is consistent with this condition?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Hyperpigmentation
- D. Weight gain
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperpigmentation is a characteristic symptom of Addison's disease. In Addison's disease, there is a decrease in cortisol production, leading to an increase in adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) secretion by the pituitary gland. Excess ACTH can stimulate melanocytes, resulting in hyperpigmentation. Choices A, B, and D are not typically associated with Addison's disease. Hypertension is more commonly associated with conditions involving excess cortisol production, such as Cushing's syndrome. Hyperglycemia may occur in diabetes mellitus but is not a hallmark of Addison's disease. Weight loss, rather than weight gain, is a common symptom of Addison's disease due to decreased cortisol levels.
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A client with DM visits the health care clinic. The client's diabetes has been well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?
- A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
- B. Prednisone (Deltasone)
- C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
- D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause hyperglycemia by increasing glucose production in the liver. Atenolol (Choice A) is a beta-blocker that typically does not affect blood glucose levels significantly. Phenelzine (Choice C) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used for depression and does not directly impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Choice D) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not contribute to hyperglycemia.
A healthcare professional reviews a client's electrolyte laboratory report and notes that the potassium level is 3.2 mEq/L. Which of the following would the healthcare professional note on the electrocardiogram as a result of the laboratory value?
- A. U waves
- B. Absent P waves
- C. Elevated T waves
- D. Elevated ST segment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: U waves. A low potassium level (hypokalemia) can manifest as U waves on an ECG. U waves are small, extra deflections seen after the T wave and may indicate cardiac irritability. Absent P waves (Choice B) are associated with conditions like atrial fibrillation. Elevated T waves (Choice C) can be seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Elevated ST segment (Choice D) is not typically associated with low potassium levels but can be seen in conditions like myocardial infarction.
Which of the following best describes the nurse's role in maintaining patient dignity?
- A. The nurse ensures that the patient is treated with respect and that their personal beliefs and values are considered in their care.
- B. The nurse maintains the patient's dignity by ensuring privacy during personal care activities.
- C. The nurse ensures that the patient's personal information is kept private and only shared with those directly involved in their care.
- D. The nurse ensures that the patient is involved in decisions about their care and that their preferences are respected.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse's role in maintaining patient dignity goes beyond just privacy during personal care activities. It involves treating the patient with respect, considering their personal beliefs and values in their care. While privacy is important for dignity, respecting personal beliefs and values is equally crucial. Choice B focuses solely on privacy, overlooking the broader aspects of dignity maintenance. Choices C and D, although important in patient care, do not fully capture the comprehensive approach needed for maintaining patient dignity as described in choice A.
Which outcome indicates that treatment of a male client with diabetes insipidus has been effective?
- A. Fluid intake is less than 2,500 ml/day
- B. Urine output measures more than 200 ml/hour
- C. Blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg
- D. The heart rate is 126 beats/minute
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct outcome indicating effective treatment of diabetes insipidus in a male client is a fluid intake of less than 2,500 ml/day. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination causes increased fluid intake to compensate for the fluid loss. By effectively managing the condition, the client's fluid intake should decrease. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect the effectiveness of treatment for diabetes insipidus. Increased urine output (choice B) may indicate inadequate control of the condition, while low blood pressure (choice C) and a high heart rate (choice D) are not specific indicators of effective treatment for diabetes insipidus.
A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:
- A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
- B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
- C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
- D. Felodipine (Plendil)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.