NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram Related

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The healthcare provider is caring for a 20 lbs (9 kg) 6-month-old with a 3-day history of diarrhea, occasional vomiting, and fever. Peripheral intravenous therapy has been initiated, with 5% dextrose in 0.33% normal saline with 20 mEq of potassium per liter infusing at 35 ml/hr. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

  • A. 3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour
  • B. Periodic crying and irritability
  • C. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier
  • D. No measurable voiding in 4 hours
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'No measurable voiding in 4 hours.' This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. The concern is the possibility of hyperkalemia, which could occur with continued potassium administration and a decrease in urinary output since potassium is excreted via the kidneys. It is crucial to monitor urinary output in pediatric patients receiving potassium-containing IV solutions to prevent electrolyte imbalances and potential complications.

Choices A, B, and C are not the most critical findings that require immediate reporting. '3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour' may suggest a need for antiemetic therapy or further assessment of the underlying cause but does not pose an immediate risk like the potential electrolyte imbalance from decreased urinary output. 'Periodic crying and irritability' and 'Vigorous sucking on a pacifier' are common behaviors in infants and are not indicative of a critical condition that requires urgent attention in this scenario.

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Why are subdural hemorrhages more common in the elderly?

  • A. Increased anticoagulant use
  • B. Increased risk of falls
  • C. Brain atrophy
  • D. Inconsistent care giving
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Subdural hemorrhages are more common in the elderly due to cerebral atrophy resulting from the natural aging process. This atrophy can lead to the stretching of bridging veins, making them more fragile and prone to tearing even with minor trauma. While increased anticoagulant use and a higher risk of falls are common in the elderly, brain atrophy plays a more direct role in the increased incidence of subdural hemorrhages. Inconsistent caregiving, on the other hand, is not a direct cause of subdural hemorrhages but may impact the overall management and outcome of such cases.

Following mitral valve replacement surgery, a client develops PVCs. The healthcare provider orders a bolus of Lidocaine followed by a continuous Lidocaine infusion at a rate of 2 mg/minute. The IV solution contains 2 grams of Lidocaine in 500 mL of D5W. The infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops/mL. What rate would deliver 4 mg of Lidocaine per minute?

  • A. 60 microdrops/minute
  • B. 20 microdrops/minute
  • C. 30 microdrops/minute
  • D. 40 microdrops/minute
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the rate needed to deliver 4 mg/minute of Lidocaine, first, convert 2 grams to milligrams: 2 grams = 2000 mg. Then, set up a ratio between the total amount of Lidocaine (2000 mg) and the total volume of IV solution (500 mL): 2000 mg / 500 mL = 4 mg / x mL. Solving for x, x = 1 mL. Since the infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops per mL, multiplying by 60 microdrops/mL gives the correct rate of 60 microdrops/minute. This rate ensures the desired 4 mg of Lidocaine is delivered per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided information.

The nurse is caring for a 13-year-old following spinal fusion for scoliosis. Which of the following interventions is appropriate in the immediate post-operative period?

  • A. Raise the head of the bed at least 30 degrees
  • B. Encourage ambulation within 24 hours
  • C. Maintain in a flat position, logrolling as needed
  • D. Encourage leg contraction and relaxation after 48 hours
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the immediate post-operative period following spinal fusion for scoliosis in a 13-year-old, it is important to maintain the patient in a flat position and perform logrolling as needed. This helps prevent injury to the surgical site and ensures proper spinal alignment. Raising the head of the bed at least 30 degrees is contraindicated as it can put strain on the surgical site. Encouraging ambulation within 24 hours may be appropriate in the recovery process but not in the immediate post-operative period. Encouraging leg contraction and relaxation after 48 hours may also be part of the rehabilitation process but is not a priority in the immediate post-operative period.

Which interventions should the nurse include when creating a care plan for a child with hepatitis? Select one that doesn't apply.

  • A. Providing a low-fat, well-balanced diet.
  • B. Teaching the child effective hand-washing techniques.
  • C. Notifying the primary health care provider (PHCP) if jaundice is present.
  • D. Instructing the parents to avoid administering medications unless prescribed.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is instructing the parents to avoid administering medications unless prescribed. This choice is not directly related to the care of a child with hepatitis. It is essential for the nurse to educate the child and family about providing a low-fat, well-balanced diet to support the liver, teaching effective hand-washing techniques to prevent the spread of infection, and notifying the primary health care provider if jaundice is present to monitor the progression of the disease and adjust the treatment plan accordingly. Avoiding unnecessary medications is crucial, but it should be done under healthcare provider guidance, so the statement should be revised to reflect this aspect. Therefore, the other options are appropriate for the care of a child with hepatitis.

The nurse is preparing to care for a child with a diagnosis of intussusception. The nurse reviews the child's record and expects to note which sign of this disorder documented?

  • A. Watery diarrhea
  • B. Ribbon-like stools
  • C. Profuse projectile vomiting
  • D. Bright red blood and mucus in the stools
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Intussusception is a condition where a part of the bowel slides into the next section, causing an obstruction. The classic presentation includes severe abdominal pain that is crampy, intermittent, and may cause the child to draw knees to the chest. While vomiting can occur, it is not typically projectile in nature. A key hallmark of intussusception is the passage of bright red blood and mucus in the stools, often described as currant jelly-like. Watery diarrhea and ribbon-like stools are not typical signs of intussusception and should not be expected in a child with this condition.

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