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The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a wound infection. Which type of dressing is most appropriate to use to promote healing by secondary intention?
- A. Dry gauze dressing
- B. Wet-to-dry dressing
- C. Transparent film dressing
- D. Hydrocolloid dressing
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hydrocolloid dressings are ideal for promoting healing by secondary intention in wound infections. These dressings create a moist environment that supports autolytic debridement and facilitates the healing process. Dry gauze dressings (Option A) may lead to adherence, causing trauma upon removal and disrupting the wound bed. Wet-to-dry dressings (Option B) are primarily used for mechanical debridement and can be painful during dressing changes. Transparent film dressings (Option C) are more suitable for superficial wounds with minimal exudate and are not typically used for wound infections requiring healing by secondary intention.
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A healthcare provider is receiving a prescription for a client who is experiencing dysphagia following a stroke. Which of the following prescriptions should the healthcare provider clarify?
- A. Dietitian consult
- B. Speech therapy referral
- C. Oral suction at the bedside
- D. Clear liquids
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Clear liquids.' Clients with dysphagia following a stroke are at high risk of aspiration, and clear liquids have a higher risk of aspiration compared to thickened liquids. Therefore, the healthcare provider should clarify the prescription for clear liquids and consider recommending thickened liquids instead to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice A, 'Dietitian consult,' is essential to ensure the client receives appropriate nutrition tailored to their condition. Choice B, 'Speech therapy referral,' is crucial for dysphagia management and rehabilitation. Choice C, 'Oral suction at the bedside,' is a standard intervention to maintain airway patency and is not contraindicated in clients with dysphagia.
During a home safety assessment for a client receiving supplemental oxygen, which observation should the nurse identify as proper safety protocol?
- A. The client uses non-acetone nail polish remover.
- B. The client uses an electric razor for shaving.
- C. The client cleans their oxygen equipment weekly.
- D. The client uses wool blankets.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using non-acetone nail polish remover is crucial for clients on supplemental oxygen as acetone is flammable and poses a safety risk. Acetone can react with oxygen, increasing the fire hazard. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Electric razors can generate sparks, which are dangerous near oxygen due to the risk of ignition. While cleaning oxygen equipment is important, the type of nail polish remover used is more critical for immediate safety. Wool blankets can create static electricity, increasing the risk of fire around oxygen due to its flammability.
A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. Serum creatinine
- B. Hemoglobin
- C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- D. Platelet count
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Epoetin alfa (Epogen) is a medication commonly used in clients with chronic kidney disease to stimulate red blood cell production. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy. Hemoglobin levels reflect the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and indicate if the medication is successfully treating anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Option A, serum creatinine, is a marker of kidney function, not the primary indicator of epoetin alfa effectiveness. Option C, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), is a measure of kidney function and hydration status. Option D, platelet count, assesses clotting ability and is unrelated to monitoring the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in treating anemia in chronic kidney disease.
A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a prescription for a vest restraint. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Tie the restraint with a quick-release knot.
- B. Use a slipknot to secure the restraint.
- C. Ensure the restraint is tightly secured.
- D. Attach the restraint to the bed frame.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional to take when applying a vest restraint is to tie it with a quick-release knot. A quick-release knot allows for easy and rapid removal in case of an emergency, ensuring the safety of the client. Using a slipknot (Choice B) is not recommended as it may not provide quick release in emergencies. Ensuring the restraint is tightly secured (Choice C) can be dangerous as it can restrict circulation or cause discomfort. Attaching the restraint to the bed frame (Choice D) is inappropriate and can lead to potential harm or injury to the client.
A client has a new prescription for a home oxygen concentrator. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to the client and their family?
- A. Check the cord routinely for frays or tearing
- B. Use oxygen around open flames
- C. Store oxygen concentrator in a closet
- D. Wear synthetic clothing to prevent static electricity
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client and their family to check the cord routinely for frays or tearing. This is crucial to ensure the safety and proper function of the oxygen concentrator. Choice B is incorrect because oxygen should never be used around open flames due to the risk of fire. Choice C is also incorrect as oxygen cylinders or concentrators should not be stored in a closet due to ventilation and safety concerns. Choice D is incorrect because synthetic clothing can generate static electricity, which could pose a risk around oxygen equipment.