Nokea
The healthcare provider is caring for a client with jaundice. Which serum laboratory value is likely to be elevated for this client?
- A. Amylase
- B. Creatinine
- C. Blood urea nitrogen
- D. Bilirubin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bilirubin is a key serum laboratory value that is likely to be elevated in clients with jaundice. Jaundice is characterized by a yellowish discoloration of the skin and eyes due to an excess of bilirubin, a breakdown product of hemoglobin. Elevated amylase levels are associated with pancreatic conditions, not specifically jaundice. Creatinine and blood urea nitrogen are markers of kidney function and are not directly related to jaundice.
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The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central venous catheter. Which assessment finding indicates a complication related to the TPN?
- A. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dl
- B. Serum potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
- C. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours
- D. White blood cell count of 7000/mm3
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours is concerning as it indicates fluid retention, a potential complication of TPN leading to fluid overload. Elevated blood glucose levels (Choice A) are expected in TPN, serum potassium levels (Choice B) are within the normal range, and a white blood cell count (Choice D) of 7000/mm3 is also normal. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as it suggests a complication related to TPN.
The nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client with a nasogastric tube. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Check for tube placement
- B. Crush the medications
- C. Flush the tube with water
- D. Administer the medications
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action when administering medications to a client with a nasogastric tube is to check for tube placement. This is crucial to ensure that the medications are delivered to the correct location within the gastrointestinal tract. Checking the tube placement helps prevent complications such as medication entering the lungs if the tube is misplaced. Crushing the medications (choice B) or flushing the tube with water (choice C) should only be done after confirming the correct tube placement. Administering the medications (choice D) without verifying the tube placement can lead to serious consequences.
One hour after delivery, the nurse is unable to palpate the uterine fundus of a client and notes a large amount of lochia on the perineal pad. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Empty the bladder using an indwelling urinary catheter
- B. Increase the rate of the IV containing oxytocin (Pitocin)
- C. Assess for shock by determining the blood pressure
- D. Perform gentle massage at the level of the umbilicus
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Gentle massage at the level of the umbilicus is the initial intervention to help contract the uterus and reduce bleeding, which is crucial in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Emptying the bladder can help with fundal displacement, but massage should be done first to stimulate uterine contractions. Increasing the IV oxytocin rate is a possible intervention but not the initial priority. Assessing for shock is important, but addressing the uterine atony through massage takes precedence to prevent further hemorrhage.
The nurse is assessing on the first postoperative day following thyroid surgery. Which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Calcium
- B. Sodium
- C. Chloride
- D. Potassium
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF) has a 24-hour urine output of 400 ml. How much oral intake should the nurse allow this client to have during the next 24 hours?
- A. Encourage oral fluids as tolerated
- B. Decrease oral intake to 200 ml
- C. Allow the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake
- D. Limit oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), the goal is to prevent fluid overload. Since the client has a low urine output of 400 ml in 24 hours, limiting oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml is appropriate. Encouraging unrestricted oral fluids (Choice A) can exacerbate fluid overload. Decreasing oral intake to 200 ml (Choice B) would be too restrictive and may lead to dehydration. Allowing the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake (Choice C) would not account for other sources of fluid intake and output, potentially resulting in fluid imbalance.