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The healthcare provider is conducting a health assessment for a family living in a high-crime area. Which intervention should the healthcare provider prioritize to ensure the family's safety?
- A. providing information on local crime statistics
- B. teaching the family self-defense techniques
- C. helping the family develop a safety plan
- D. encouraging the family to move to a safer neighborhood
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Developing a safety plan is the most appropriate intervention as it helps the family prepare for potential emergencies and enhances their overall sense of security. Providing information on local crime statistics may raise awareness but does not directly address safety planning. Teaching self-defense techniques may have limited effectiveness in a high-crime area where the family may face multiple threats. Encouraging the family to move to a safer neighborhood is not always feasible due to various reasons such as financial constraints or social ties to the current community.
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A client with a history of epilepsy is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
- A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
- B. Lorazepam (Ativan)
- C. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
- D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine such as lorazepam (Ativan) to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam acts quickly and effectively in stopping seizures. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often used as a second-line agent for status epilepticus, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is not typically indicated for the acute treatment of status epilepticus. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a pain reliever and antipyretic but is not used in the treatment of status epilepticus.
An 80-year-old client is given morphine sulfate for postoperative pain. Which concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development of urinary retention in this geriatric client?
- A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents.
- B. Antihistamines.
- C. Tricyclic antidepressants.
- D. Antibiotics.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tricyclic antidepressants. Drugs with anticholinergic properties, such as tricyclic antidepressants, can exacerbate urinary retention associated with opioids in older clients. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (Choice A) do not typically cause urinary retention. Antihistamines (Choice B) may cause urinary retention but are not the primary concern in this scenario. Antibiotics (Choice D) are not associated with an increased risk of urinary retention compared to tricyclic antidepressants.
A client with hypertension is being seen in a community clinic. The nurse notes that the client has not been taking their prescribed medication regularly. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?
- A. Educate the client on the importance of medication adherence
- B. Explore the reasons for non-adherence with the client
- C. Refer the client to a hypertension specialist
- D. Adjust the client's medication regimen
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate initial intervention when a client is not adhering to prescribed medication is to explore the reasons for non-adherence with the client. Understanding the client's perspective can help identify barriers to adherence, such as side effects, cost, forgetfulness, or misunderstanding of the treatment. By addressing these reasons, the nurse can work collaboratively with the client to develop strategies to improve medication compliance. Educating the client on the importance of adherence (Choice A) may be necessary but should come after exploring the reasons for non-adherence. Referring the client to a hypertension specialist (Choice C) or adjusting the medication regimen (Choice D) should be considered after addressing the underlying reasons for non-adherence.
During which home visit performed by a registered nurse or a practical nurse can the home healthcare agency expect Medicare reimbursement for documenting a skilled care service provided?
- A. 13-18 years of age
- B. 11-12 years of age
- C. 18-24 months of age
- D. 4-6 years of age
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4-6 years of age. According to current CDC guidelines, a child receiving the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine at 12 months of age should plan to receive the MMR booster between 4-6 years of age. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the CDC's recommended age range for the MMR vaccine booster. It is crucial for healthcare providers to stay updated with current guidelines to ensure the timely administration of vaccines for optimal protection.
A client with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed aspirin therapy. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take aspirin with food.
- B. Take aspirin at the same time every day.
- C. Avoid taking aspirin with alcohol.
- D. Discontinue aspirin if you experience ringing in your ears.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the client's teaching plan is to avoid taking aspirin with alcohol. Combining aspirin with alcohol can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding and other complications. Taking aspirin with food helps reduce stomach upset, but it is not the most crucial instruction in this scenario. While taking aspirin at the same time every day can help with consistency, it is not as critical as avoiding alcohol. Discontinuing aspirin if experiencing ringing in the ears is important to address potential side effects, but it is not directly related to preventing complications when combining with alcohol.