Nokea
The healthcare provider is educating a parent about side effects of routine immunizations. Which of the following must be reported immediately?
- A. Irritability
- B. Slight edema at the injection site
- C. Local tenderness
- D. Temperature of 102.5?F
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A temperature of 102.5°F or higher following immunization is considered an adverse reaction and should be reported immediately. This could indicate a more serious systemic response to the vaccine. Irritability, slight edema at the injection site, and local tenderness are common, mild side effects of routine immunizations and do not typically require immediate reporting. Other reactions that should be reported immediately include excessive crying for more than 3 hours, seizure activity, and the presence of tender, swollen, or reddened areas at the injection site.
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When asked to describe in layman's terms an overview of the condition called osteomyelitis, what would be the nurse's best response?
- A. Osteomyelitis is a gradual breakdown and weakening of your bones. It's most often age-related.
- B. Osteomyelitis is caused by not having enough Vitamin D, which in turn causes your bones to be softer and demineralized.
- C. Osteomyelitis is an infection in the bone. It can be caused by bacteria reaching your bone from outside or inside your body.
- D. This is a question that should be directed to your healthcare provider.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Osteomyelitis is an infection in the bone that can be caused by bacteria reaching the bone either from outside the body (such as through an open fracture) or inside the body (such as through the bloodstream). This response provides a concise and accurate explanation of osteomyelitis, making it the best choice. Choices A and B provide inaccurate information about the condition, attributing it to age-related bone breakdown and Vitamin D deficiency, which are not correct causes of osteomyelitis. Choice D deflects the question instead of providing the patient with a clear explanation, making it an inappropriate response.
The nurse is planning care for a client during the acute phase of a sickle cell vasoocclusive crisis. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate?
- A. Fluid restriction to 1000cc per day
- B. Ambulate in the hallway 4 times a day
- C. Administer analgesic therapy as ordered
- D. Encourage increased caloric intake
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Administering analgesic therapy as ordered is the most appropriate action during the acute phase of a sickle cell vasoocclusive crisis. In this phase, the primary focus is on managing the severe pain experienced by the individual. Analgesic therapy helps alleviate the pain and discomfort associated with the crisis. The other options are not the priority during this phase. Fluid restriction is not recommended as hydration is crucial in managing a vasoocclusive crisis. Ambulation may worsen the pain and should be minimized during this phase. Encouraging increased caloric intake is not directly related to managing the acute phase of a vasoocclusive crisis.
A woman in her third trimester complains of severe heartburn. What is appropriate teaching by the nurse to help the woman alleviate these symptoms?
- A. Drink small amounts of liquids frequently
- B. Eat the evening meal at least 2-3 hours before bedtime
- C. Take sodium bicarbonate after each meal
- D. Sleep with head propped on several pillows
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During the third trimester, many women experience heartburn due to the pressure of the growing uterus on the stomach. Elevating the head while sleeping can help prevent gastric contents from refluxing back into the esophagus, thus reducing heartburn symptoms. Drinking small amounts of liquids frequently may exacerbate heartburn by increasing stomach distension. Eating the evening meal just before retiring can also worsen heartburn symptoms as lying down shortly after eating can promote reflux. Taking sodium bicarbonate after each meal is not recommended as it can disrupt the body's natural pH balance and lead to other complications.
The nurse is caring for a client in the late stages of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (A.L.S.). Which finding would the nurse expect?
- A. Confusion
- B. Loss of half of the visual field
- C. Shallow respirations
- D. Tonic-clonic seizures
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the late stages of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (A.L.S.), respiratory muscles are affected, leading to shallow respirations. Confusion is not typically associated with A.L.S. Loss of half of the visual field suggests a neurological issue unrelated to A.L.S., while tonic-clonic seizures are not commonly seen in A.L.S. patients. Shallow respirations are a hallmark sign of respiratory muscle weakness in A.L.S. due to the degeneration of motor neurons.
A nurse is caring for a patient admitted to the emergency room for an ischemic stroke with marked functional deficits. The physician is considering the use of fibrinolytic therapy with TPA (tissue plasminogen activator). Which history-gathering question would not be important for the nurse to ask?
- A. What time did you first notice symptoms consistently appearing?
- B. Have you been taking any blood thinners such as heparin, lovenox, or warfarin?
- C. Have you had another stroke or head trauma in the previous 3 months?
- D. Have you had any blood transfusions within the previous year?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Have you had any blood transfusions within the previous year?' This question is not relevant in the context of considering fibrinolytic therapy with TPA for an ischemic stroke. Blood transfusions within the previous year do not directly impact the decision to use TPA in the treatment of an acute ischemic stroke. The focus should be on factors such as the time of symptom onset, current medications like blood thinners, and recent history of strokes or head trauma, as these are more directly related to the decision-making process for administering TPA in this emergency situation.