Nokea
The healthcare provider is educating a parent about side effects of routine immunizations. Which of the following must be reported immediately?
- A. Irritability
- B. Slight edema at the injection site
- C. Local tenderness
- D. Temperature of 102.5?F
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A temperature of 102.5°F or higher following immunization is considered an adverse reaction and should be reported immediately. This could indicate a more serious systemic response to the vaccine. Irritability, slight edema at the injection site, and local tenderness are common, mild side effects of routine immunizations and do not typically require immediate reporting. Other reactions that should be reported immediately include excessive crying for more than 3 hours, seizure activity, and the presence of tender, swollen, or reddened areas at the injection site.
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A client is scheduled for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP). In order to prepare the client for this test, the nurse would:
- A. Instruct the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination
- B. Restrict the client's fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination
- C. Administer a laxative to the client the evening before the examination
- D. Inform the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Administering a laxative to the client the evening before the examination is the correct action. Bowel prep is crucial for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) as it helps in achieving better visualization of the bladder and ureters. Instructing the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination (Choice A) is not the appropriate preparation for an IVP. Restricting the client's fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination (Choice B) is not necessary for this test. Informing the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary (Choice D) is not relevant to the preparation process for an IVP.
Which interventions should the nurse include when creating a care plan for a child with hepatitis? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Providing a low-fat, well-balanced diet.
- B. Teaching the child effective hand-washing techniques.
- C. Notifying the primary health care provider (PHCP) if jaundice is present.
- D. Instructing the parents to avoid administering medications unless prescribed.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is instructing the parents to avoid administering medications unless prescribed. This choice is not directly related to the care of a child with hepatitis. It is essential for the nurse to educate the child and family about providing a low-fat, well-balanced diet to support the liver, teaching effective hand-washing techniques to prevent the spread of infection, and notifying the primary health care provider if jaundice is present to monitor the progression of the disease and adjust the treatment plan accordingly. Avoiding unnecessary medications is crucial, but it should be done under healthcare provider guidance, so the statement should be revised to reflect this aspect. Therefore, the other options are appropriate for the care of a child with hepatitis.
What nursing intervention demonstrates that the nurse understands the priority nursing diagnosis when caring for oral cancer patients with extensive tumor involvement and/or a high amount of secretions?
- A. The nurse uses a pen pad to communicate with the patient
- B. The nurse provides oral care every 2 hours
- C. The nurse listens for bowel sounds every 4 hours
- D. The nurse suctions as needed and elevates the head of the bed
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to suction as needed and elevate the head of the bed. This intervention is crucial for managing Ineffective Airway Clearance, which is the priority nursing diagnosis in oral cancer patients with extensive tumor involvement and/or a high amount of secretions. Suctioning helps clear secretions that may obstruct the airway, while elevating the head of the bed promotes optimal respiratory function. Providing oral care every 2 hours may be important for overall oral health but is not directly related to addressing the priority diagnosis. Listening for bowel sounds every 4 hours is more relevant to gastrointestinal assessment and not specific to managing airway clearance issues in oral cancer patients.
Which client is at highest risk for developing a pressure ulcer?
- A. 23 year-old in traction for fractured femur
- B. 72 year-old with peripheral vascular disease, who is unable to walk without assistance
- C. 75 year-old with left sided paresthesia and is incontinent of urine and stool
- D. 30 year-old who is comatose following a ruptured aneurysm
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Risk factors for pressure ulcers include: immobility, absence of sensation, decreased LOC, poor nutrition and hydration, skin moisture, incontinence, increased age, decreased immune response. This client has the greatest number of risk factors.
A nurse admits a 3-week-old infant to the special care nursery with a diagnosis of bronchopulmonary dysplasia. As the nurse reviews the birth history, which data would be most consistent with this diagnosis?
- A. Gestational age assessment suggested growth retardation
- B. Meconium was cleared from the airway at delivery
- C. Phototherapy was used to treat Rh incompatibility
- D. The infant received mechanical ventilation for 2 weeks
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'The infant received mechanical ventilation for 2 weeks.' Bronchopulmonary dysplasia is a condition primarily caused by therapies like positive-pressure ventilation used in the treatment of lung disease. This leads to lung damage and subsequent respiratory problems. Choices A, B, and C are not consistent with the diagnosis of bronchopulmonary dysplasia. Gestational age assessment suggesting growth retardation is more indicative of intrauterine growth restriction, clearing meconium from the airway at delivery is related to potential respiratory issues at birth, and phototherapy for Rh incompatibility is unrelated to bronchopulmonary dysplasia.