Nokea
The healthcare provider is monitoring a client in active labor. Which pattern on the fetal heart monitor requires immediate intervention?
- A. Early decelerations
- B. Late decelerations
- C. Accelerations
- D. Moderate variability
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Late decelerations are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, potentially resulting in fetal hypoxia. Immediate intervention is necessary to address the underlying cause and ensure fetal well-being. Early decelerations are typically benign and associated with head compression during contractions. Accelerations are reassuring and indicate fetal well-being. Moderate variability is a normal finding and indicates a healthy autonomic nervous system response. Therefore, late decelerations (Choice B) require immediate attention, while the other patterns are generally considered normal or benign during labor.
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A middle-aged adult in a clinical setting mentions being at average risk for colon cancer and asks about routine screening. What should the nurse recommend?
- A. Performing a blood sample for a screening test.
- B. Scheduling a colonoscopy starting at age 60.
- C. Undergoing a fecal occult blood test annually.
- D. Having a sigmoidoscopy every 10 years.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Colorectal cancer screening for individuals at average risk typically begins at age 50. One of the recommended options for routine screening is a fecal occult blood test done annually. Choice A is incorrect as blood samples are not used for routine colorectal cancer screening. Choice B is incorrect because colonoscopies usually start at age 50, not 60. Choice D is incorrect as sigmoidoscopies are recommended every 5 years, not every 10 years, for individuals at average risk for colon cancer.
When caring for a client receiving warfarin sodium (Coumadin), which lab test would the nurse monitor to determine therapeutic response to the drug?
- A. Bleeding time
- B. Coagulation time
- C. Prothrombin time
- D. Partial thromboplastin time
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the therapeutic response to warfarin therapy. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which prolongs the PT. Monitoring PT helps determine if the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because bleeding time, coagulation time, and partial thromboplastin time are not specifically used to monitor the therapeutic response to warfarin. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, coagulation time is a general term and not a specific test, and partial thromboplastin time is more relevant in monitoring heparin therapy, not warfarin.
The healthcare provider is assessing a client with acute pancreatitis. Which finding is most concerning?
- A. Pain radiating to the back
- B. Blood pressure of 95/60 mmHg
- C. Elevated serum amylase
- D. Absent bowel sounds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In acute pancreatitis, a low blood pressure of 95/60 mmHg is the most concerning finding as it may indicate hypovolemia or shock, which are critical conditions requiring immediate intervention. Pain radiating to the back is a common symptom of pancreatitis but is not as immediately life-threatening as hypotension. Elevated serum amylase levels and absent bowel sounds are typical findings in acute pancreatitis and may indicate pancreatic inflammation and gastrointestinal motility issues, respectively, but they are not as acutely concerning as hypotension.
A healthcare professional is planning to document care provided for a client. Which of the following abbreviations should the professional use?
- A. PC for after meals
- B. QD for every day
- C. BID for twice a day
- D. PRN for as needed
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: PC for after meals. PC stands for 'post cibum,' which is the appropriate abbreviation for 'after meals' in medical documentation. Choices B, QD, and C, BID, represent 'every day' and 'twice a day,' respectively, which are not specific to meal times. Choice D, PRN, signifies 'as needed,' which is also not related to meal timings. Therefore, for documenting care provided after meals, the most suitable abbreviation is PC.
A client is experiencing dyspnea and fatigue after completing morning care. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Schedule rest periods during morning care.
- B. Discontinue morning care for 2 days.
- C. Perform all care as quickly as possible.
- D. Ask a family member to come in to bathe the client.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Scheduling rest periods during morning care is essential for managing dyspnea and fatigue in the client. This approach allows the client to pace themselves and catch their breath, promoting comfort and reducing symptoms. It is crucial to provide breaks to prevent overwhelming the client and exacerbating their symptoms. Discontinuing morning care for 2 days (choice B) is not a suitable solution as it does not address the underlying issue and may lead to neglect of essential care. Performing all care as quickly as possible (choice C) can worsen the client's symptoms and compromise their well-being by increasing stress and exertion. Asking a family member to bathe the client (choice D) does not address the need for rest periods during care and may not be feasible or appropriate in all situations.