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The healthcare provider is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the provider to explain the reason for the prescribed medication. What response is best for the provider to provide?
- A. To increase gastric motility.
- B. To decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery.
- C. To reduce secretions.
- D. To prevent nausea and vomiting.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic medication, is used preoperatively to prevent bradycardia by increasing the automaticity of the sinoatrial node during surgical anesthesia. Choice A is incorrect because atropine does not affect gastric motility. Choice C is incorrect as atropine is not primarily used to reduce secretions. Choice D is also incorrect because preventing nausea and vomiting is not the primary purpose of administering atropine in this context.
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A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?
- A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
- B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
- C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
- D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL is an indicator of effective erythropoietin therapy as it shows an increase in red blood cell production. Reticulocyte count (choice B) reflects the bone marrow's response to anemia but does not directly confirm the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Blood pressure (choice C) and serum ferritin level (choice D) are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy for chronic kidney disease.
A client who has been receiving chemotherapy for cancer has a platelet count of 20,000/mm3. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Apply ice packs to bruised areas.
- B. Encourage frequent oral hygiene.
- C. Avoid invasive procedures.
- D. Place the client in a private room.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a platelet count of 20,000/mm3 due to chemotherapy is to avoid invasive procedures. Chemotherapy can cause a decrease in platelet count, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. By avoiding invasive procedures, the nurse helps reduce the risk of bleeding complications. Applying ice packs to bruised areas (Choice A) may further increase the risk of bleeding due to the pressure and potential trauma to the skin. Encouraging frequent oral hygiene (Choice B) is important for overall health but does not directly address the risk of bleeding associated with a low platelet count. Placing the client in a private room (Choice D) is not directly related to managing the platelet count and risk of bleeding; it is more about privacy and infection control, which are important but not the priority in this scenario.
The healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intravenous antibiotic to a client with a central venous catheter. Which action is most important?
- A. Flush the catheter with heparin.
- B. Change the dressing at the insertion site.
- C. Check for blood return before administering the antibiotic.
- D. Use sterile technique when accessing the catheter.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Using sterile technique when accessing the catheter is crucial to prevent infection in clients with a central venous catheter. This action helps maintain asepsis and reduces the risk of introducing pathogens into the catheter system. Flushing the catheter with heparin helps prevent occlusion but is not as crucial as ensuring sterile technique. Changing the dressing at the insertion site is important for assessing the site's condition but does not directly impact the administration of the antibiotic. Checking for blood return is essential to ensure proper catheter function, but sterile technique takes precedence to prevent infections.
The healthcare professional is developing a program to educate parents on the importance of immunizations. Which topic should be prioritized?
- A. the benefits of immunizations
- B. the potential side effects of vaccines
- C. the immunization schedule
- D. ways to comfort children during vaccinations
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Prioritizing the benefits of immunizations is crucial in helping parents comprehend the significance of vaccines in safeguarding their children against preventable diseases. Understanding the positive impact of immunizations can alleviate concerns and misconceptions that parents may have, ultimately encouraging them to make informed decisions regarding their children's health. Discussing potential side effects (choice B) is important but should come after highlighting the benefits to avoid instilling unnecessary fear. While the immunization schedule (choice C) is essential information, it may be overwhelming if presented as the initial focus. Comforting children during vaccinations (choice D) is valuable but secondary to ensuring parents understand the benefits of immunizations.
A public health nurse is evaluating a program designed to reduce childhood obesity. Which outcome indicates that the program is successful?
- A. increased participation in physical activities
- B. higher attendance at nutrition education sessions
- C. reduced rates of childhood obesity
- D. greater knowledge of healthy eating habits
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: reduced rates of childhood obesity. A reduction in childhood obesity rates is a direct indicator that the program is successful in achieving its goal. Increased participation in physical activities (choice A) and higher attendance at nutrition education sessions (choice B) are positive outcomes, but they do not directly measure the program's effectiveness in reducing obesity. Greater knowledge of healthy eating habits (choice D) is important but does not guarantee a decrease in obesity rates. Therefore, the most significant outcome to determine the success of a childhood obesity reduction program is a reduction in obesity rates.