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The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The LPN/LVN plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?
- A. 42 gtt/min
- B. 83 gtt/min
- C. 125 gtt/min
- D. 250 gtt/min
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), the formula is Total volume (mL) · Time (min) · Drop factor (gtt/mL). In this case, 1000 mL · 240 min · 20 gtt/mL = 83 gtt/min. Therefore, setting the flow rate to 83 gtt/min ensures the correct administration of the IV fluids and medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided information.
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A nurse is collecting data from a client who is receiving IV therapy and reports pain in the arm, chills, and 'not feeling well.' The nurse notes warmth, edema, induration, and red streaking on the client's arm close to the IV insertion site. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?
- A. Obtain a specimen for culture.
- B. Apply a warm compress.
- C. Administer analgesics.
- D. Discontinue the infusion.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Discontinuing the infusion is the first step in addressing potential complications such as phlebitis or infection. It is crucial to prevent further infusion-related damage by stopping the source of the issue. Obtaining a specimen for culture (Choice A) can be considered later to identify the specific microorganism causing the infection. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) or administering analgesics (Choice C) may provide comfort but do not address the underlying issue of infection or phlebitis, which requires immediate intervention by discontinuing the infusion.
A client with asthma is prescribed a corticosteroid inhaler. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client to prevent a common side effect of this medication?
- A. Use the inhaler only when experiencing asthma symptoms.
- B. Rinse the mouth with water after using the inhaler.
- C. Increase fluid intake while using the inhaler.
- D. Avoid eating or drinking for 30 minutes after using the inhaler.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the client using a corticosteroid inhaler to prevent a common side effect is to rinse the mouth with water after using the inhaler. Corticosteroid inhalers can lead to oral thrush, a fungal infection in the mouth. Rinsing the mouth helps reduce the risk of developing oral thrush. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because using the inhaler only when experiencing symptoms, increasing fluid intake, or avoiding eating/drinking for 30 minutes after use are not directly related to preventing oral thrush, which is the common side effect associated with corticosteroid inhalers.
When should the client administer the inhaler-delivered medication to demonstrate correct use of the inhaler?
- A. Immediately after exhalation.
- B. During the inhalation.
- C. At the end of three inhalations.
- D. Immediately after inhalation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'During the inhalation.' Administering the medication while inhaling ensures proper delivery to the lungs. Inhaling the medication allows it to reach the lungs effectively for optimal therapeutic benefit. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because administering the medication after exhalation or at the end of inhalations may result in improper drug delivery and reduced therapeutic effects.
While suctioning a client's nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client's oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?
- A. Complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx.
- B. Reposition the pulse oximeter clip to obtain a new reading.
- C. Stop suctioning until the pulse oximeter reading is above 95%.
- D. Apply an oxygen mask over the client's nose and mouth.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx. Since the oxygen saturation remains stable at 94%, which was the initial reading, it indicates that the procedure is not causing a significant drop in oxygen levels. Stopping the suctioning or applying oxygen may not be necessary as the saturation level is within an acceptable range. Repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is unlikely to change the reading significantly. Therefore, completing the procedure maintains care consistency and effectiveness, ensuring proper airway management without unnecessary interventions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because repositioning the pulse oximeter clip, stopping suctioning until a higher reading is achieved, and applying oxygen are not warranted based on the stable oxygen saturation level of 94% throughout the procedure.
A healthcare professional is collecting a urine specimen for a client to test via urine dipstick to determine the urine's specific gravity. The healthcare professional knows the result will indicate the amount of:
- A. Solutes in the urine
- B. Bacteria in the urine
- C. pH level of the urine
- D. Glucose in the urine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Specific gravity measures the concentration of solutes in the urine, reflecting the kidney's ability to concentrate or dilute urine. Choice B, bacteria in the urine, is incorrect because specific gravity does not measure bacterial presence. Choice C, pH level of the urine, is incorrect as it refers to the acidity or alkalinity of the urine, not its specific gravity. Choice D, glucose in the urine, is incorrect as specific gravity does not directly measure glucose levels in urine.