The healthcare provider writes several prescriptions for a client diagnosed with hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) that include a combination of broad-spectrum antibiotics. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer the first dose of antibiotics.
- B. Obtain a chest X-ray.
- C. Administer oxygen therapy.
- D. Collect blood specimens for culture prior to starting antibiotic therapy.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Collecting blood specimens for culture prior to starting antibiotic therapy is the priority intervention in a client diagnosed with hospital-acquired pneumonia. This step is crucial to identify the causative organism responsible for the infection and ensure that the antibiotics prescribed are appropriate for effective treatment. Administering antibiotics before collecting cultures may interfere with the accuracy of culture results, potentially leading to inappropriate treatment. While administering the first dose of antibiotics is important, obtaining a chest X-ray and administering oxygen therapy are secondary interventions compared to identifying the causative organism through blood cultures.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client is admitted to the emergency department with symptoms of arm numbness, chest pain, and nausea/vomiting. The examining healthcare provider believes that the client has experienced an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) within the past three hours and would like to initiate tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) therapy. Which client history findings contraindicate the use of tPA?
- A. Treats hypoglycemia with an oral hypoglycemic agent.
- B. Had a cerebrovascular hemorrhage 2 months ago.
- C. Current age 65, father died of MI at 55.
- D. Report of being intolerant of medication that contains aspirin.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A history of cerebrovascular hemorrhage is a contraindication for tPA therapy due to the risk of bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because treating hypoglycemia with an oral hypoglycemic agent is not a contraindication for tPA therapy. Choice C is incorrect as age and family history of MI do not contraindicate the use of tPA. Choice D is incorrect as being intolerant of medication containing aspirin is not a contraindication for tPA therapy.
Ten hours following thrombolysis for an ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), a client is receiving a lidocaine infusion for isolated runs of ventricular tachycardia. Which finding should the nurse document in the EMR as a therapeutic response to the lidocaine infusion?
- A. Stabilization of BP ranges
- B. Cessation of chest pain
- C. Reduced heart rate
- D. Decreased frequency of episodes of VT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Decreased frequency of ventricular tachycardia (VT) episodes indicates that the lidocaine infusion is effectively managing the ventricular tachycardia. Stabilization of BP ranges (choice A) may not directly correlate with the therapeutic response to lidocaine for VT. Cessation of chest pain (choice B) may indicate pain relief but does not specifically address the effectiveness of lidocaine for VT. Reduced heart rate (choice C) is not a direct indicator of the response to lidocaine for managing VT.
The healthcare provider prescribes the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) naproxen (Naprosyn) 500 mg PO twice a day for a client with osteoarthritis. During a follow-up visit one month later, the client tells the nurse, 'The pills don't seem to be working. They are not helping the pain at all.' Which factor should influence the nurse's response?
- A. Noncompliance is probably impacting the optimum medication effectiveness.
- B. Drug dosage is inadequate and needs to be increased to four times a day.
- C. The drug needs 4 to 6 weeks to reach therapeutic levels in the bloodstream.
- D. NSAID response is variable, and another NSAID may be more effective.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. NSAID response can vary among individuals, and sometimes a different NSAID may be more effective for a specific client. In this case, since the current NSAID (naproxen) is not providing pain relief, it is reasonable to consider switching to another NSAID. Choice A is incorrect because there is no information provided to suggest noncompliance. Choice B is incorrect as increasing the dosage without assessing the response may lead to unnecessary side effects. Choice C is incorrect because although it may take time for NSAIDs to reach therapeutic levels, lack of pain relief after a month is a valid reason to consider changing the medication rather than waiting longer.
A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Administer antihypertensive medication as prescribed.
- B. Place the client in a supine position.
- C. Obtain a detailed health history.
- D. Monitor urine output.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering antihypertensive medication is the priority nursing action in this situation. The extremely high blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg puts the client at risk of severe complications such as stroke, heart attack, or kidney damage. Lowering the blood pressure promptly is crucial to prevent these complications. Placing the client in a supine position or obtaining a detailed health history are not immediate actions needed to address the hypertensive crisis. Monitoring urine output, although important, is not the priority when the client's blood pressure is critically high.
A client reports new onset hearing loss bilaterally after taking a medication with known ototoxic effects. Which type of hearing loss should the nurse suspect?
- A. Conductive
- B. Sensorineural
- C. Mixed
- D. Central
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sensorineural. Ototoxic medications can lead to sensorineural hearing loss by affecting the inner ear or auditory nerve. Conductive hearing loss is related to issues in the middle or outer ear, not typically caused by ototoxic medications. Mixed hearing loss is a combination of conductive and sensorineural components. Central hearing loss is related to the central nervous system, not commonly caused by ototoxic medications. Therefore, in this case, the nurse should suspect sensorineural hearing loss.
Nokea