Nokea
The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse prioritize first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?
- A. A middle-aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over seven (7) years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago.
- B. A young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 for over ten (10) years and admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago.
- C. An elderly client with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and lupus, and was admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome that morning.
- D. An adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best candidate for discharge during a need for emergency room availability is a stable patient with a chronic condition who is familiar with their care. In this scenario, the middle-aged client in option A, who has been ventilator dependent for over seven years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago, is most suitable for discharge. This client is likely stable and can continue medication therapy at home, making them the most appropriate choice for discharge at this time.
Choice B should not be the priority for discharge as the young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago may need further monitoring and management of their condition.
Choice C, the elderly client with multiple comorbidities and admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome on the same day, is not a suitable candidate for immediate discharge as they may require ongoing medical attention and observation.
Choice D, the adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago, should not be discharged first as acute cellulitis may require continued treatment and monitoring, especially in the context of a positive HIV status.
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A patient's body temperature has varied over the last 24 hours from 97.6 degrees F in the morning to 99 degrees F in the evening. The patient is worried that this change in temperature may indicate the beginning of a fever. Which of the following BEST explains this phenomenon?
- A. The patient definitely has a fever in the evening and should be seen by a doctor.
- B. The patient is experiencing changes related to a diurnal rhythm.
- C. The patient is more than likely taking their temperature incorrectly.
- D. The patient is experiencing changes related to fluctuating daily hormones.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient is experiencing changes related to a diurnal rhythm. Diurnal rhythm is the phenomenon of body temperature fluctuating depending on the time of day. Temperatures taken in the morning are typically lower than those taken throughout the rest of the day. Choice A is incorrect because a single elevated temperature reading in the evening does not definitively indicate a fever. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication of incorrect temperature measurement. Choice D is incorrect as the temperature changes are not related to monthly hormones but rather to the body's natural daily rhythm.
Where is the pulse point located on the top of the foot?
- A. the dorsalis pedis
- B. This is the pulse point checked in patients with peripheral vascular problems.
- C. This pulse point may be absent in some patients due to a congenital anomaly.
- D. All of the above.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The pulse point located on the top of the foot is known as the dorsalis pedis pulse point. It is situated on the arch of the foot, slightly lateral to the midline. This pulse point is commonly examined in patients with peripheral vascular problems to assess blood flow adequacy. Additionally, some individuals may not have this pulse point due to a congenital anomaly. Therefore, all the given statements are correct in relation to the dorsalis pedis pulse point, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are all individually valid characteristics of the dorsalis pedis pulse point, hence selecting 'All of the above' as the correct answer is appropriate.
Which complication of cardiac catheterization should the nurse monitor for in the initial 24 hours after the procedure?
- A. Angina at rest
- B. Thrombus formation
- C. Dizziness
- D. Falling blood pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Thrombus formation is a critical complication of cardiac catheterization that the nurse should monitor for in the initial 24 hours after the procedure. A thrombus can form in the blood vessels, obstructing blood flow and potentially leading to serious consequences such as embolism or organ ischemia. While angina at rest, dizziness, and falling blood pressure are potential complications following cardiac catheterization, they are not typically associated with the immediate post-procedural period. Monitoring for thrombus formation is essential to ensure early detection and intervention, which can prevent serious complications.
Which of the following bony landmarks is described as a large, blunt, irregularly shaped process found on the lateral aspect of the proximal femur?
- A. Tubercle
- B. Tuberosity
- C. Condyle
- D. Trochanter
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Trochanter. The Greater Trochanter is located on the lateral aspect of the proximal femur and is a large, blunt, irregularly shaped bony process. It serves as an important attachment site for many muscles of the legs, providing leverage and movement. Choice A, Tubercle, is a small rounded projection, usually for the attachment of a ligament or tendon. Choice B, Tuberosity, is a large rounded projection, also typically for muscle attachment. Choice C, Condyle, refers to a rounded articular surface at the end of a bone, usually involved in joints.
A registered nurse who usually works in a spinal rehabilitation unit is floated to the emergency department. Which of these clients should the charge nurse assign to this RN?
- A. A middle-aged client who says, "I took too many diet pills"? and "my heart feels like it is racing out of my chest."?
- B. A young adult who says, "I hear songs from heaven. I need money for beer. I quit drinking two (2) days ago for my family. Why are my arms and legs jerking?"?
- C. An adolescent who has been on pain medications for terminal cancer with an initial assessment finding of pinpoint pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 11.
- D. An elderly client who reports having taken a "large crack hit"? 10 minutes prior to walking into the emergency room.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When assigning a floated nurse from another unit to a client in the emergency department, the goal is to choose a patient with minimal anticipated immediate complications. In this scenario, the adolescent with terminal cancer who has been on pain medications and presents with pinpoint pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 11 is the most stable option. These assessment findings indicate opioid toxicity, which, while serious, has the least risk of immediate complications compared to the other clients. Choice A involves a middle-aged client experiencing symptoms of possible cardiac issues due to diet pill overdose, which requires urgent intervention. Choice B presents a young adult with concerning symptoms of potential psychosis or substance withdrawal, requiring immediate attention. Choice D involves an elderly client who recently used crack, posing a high-risk situation that requires prompt evaluation and intervention. Therefore, the correct choice is the adolescent with opioid toxicity, as this client has the least immediate risk of complications among the options provided.