Nokea
The key to the prevention of a pandemic influenza is:
- A. Early detection
- B. Early antibiotic treatment
- C. Vaccination of at-risk populations
- D. Isolation of suspected cases
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The key to preventing a pandemic influenza is early detection. Detecting influenza cases early allows for timely public health responses to limit the spread of the virus. Early detection helps in implementing measures such as isolation, treatment, and vaccination to prevent the development of a full-blown pandemic. Antibiotics are not effective against influenza viruses, so early antibiotic treatment is not the key to prevention. While vaccination of at-risk populations is important in controlling the spread of influenza, early detection is crucial as it allows for timely implementation of vaccination strategies. Isolation of suspected cases is a containment measure rather than a prevention strategy; the key to prevention lies in early detection to stop the spread before it becomes a pandemic.
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While assessing a one-month-old infant, which of the findings does not warrant further investigation by the nurse?
- A. Abdominal respirations
- B. Inspiratory grunt
- C. Nasal flaring
- D. Cyanosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Abdominal respirations in infants are considered normal due to the underdeveloped intercostal muscles. Infants rely more on their abdominal muscles to facilitate breathing since their intercostal muscles are not fully matured. Therefore, abdominal respirations do not typically require further investigation. Inspiratory grunt, nasal flaring, and cyanosis are findings that warrant additional assessment as they can indicate potential respiratory distress or other underlying health issues in infants. Inspiratory grunt may suggest respiratory distress, nasal flaring can be a sign of increased work of breathing, and cyanosis indicates poor oxygenation, all of which require prompt evaluation and intervention to ensure the infant's well-being.
An 18-year-old male patient informs the nurse that he isn't sure if he is homosexual because he is attracted to both genders. The nurse establishes a trusting relationship with the patient by saying:
- A. Don't worry. It's just a phase you will grow out of.
- B. Those are abnormal impulses. You should seek therapy.
- C. At your age, it is normal to be curious about both genders.
- D. Having questions about sexuality is normal. Have you noticed any changes in the way this makes you feel about yourself?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: It is important for the nurse to validate the patient's concerns and provide a supportive environment. By acknowledging that it is normal for young adults to have questions about sexuality, the nurse helps the patient feel understood and accepted. This response encourages further discussion and exploration of the patient's feelings without judgment. Choice A dismisses the patient's concerns and implies that his feelings are not valid. Choice B stigmatizes the patient's feelings by labeling them as abnormal and suggests therapy without proper assessment. Choice D addresses the patient's feelings but lacks the validation and reassurance present in the correct answer, which is essential in building a trusting relationship with the patient.
You are creating a teaching plan for a patient with newly diagnosed migraine headaches. Which key item should NOT be included in the teaching plan?
- A. Avoid foods that contain tyramine, such as alcohol and aged cheese.
- B. Avoid drugs such as Tagamet, nitroglycerin, and Nifedipine.
- C. Continue taking estrogen as prescribed by your physician.
- D. A potential side effect of medications is rebound headache.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Continue taking estrogen as prescribed by your physician. Medications such as estrogen supplements may actually trigger a migraine headache attack. Fluctuations in estrogen, such as before or during menstrual periods, pregnancy, and menopause, seem to trigger headaches in many women. Choices A and B are important to include in the teaching plan for a patient with migraines as avoiding foods containing tyramine and certain drugs can help prevent migraine triggers. Choice D is also relevant as it is essential for the patient to be aware of potential side effects of medications, including rebound headaches.
Which action represents the evaluation stage of the plan of care?
- A. The nurse assigns a nursing diagnosis of Impaired Skin Integrity related to diminished skin circulation
- B. The nurse assesses the client's vital signs and asks about symptoms
- C. The nurse determines that the client is not meeting his set outcomes and makes revisions
- D. The nurse discusses the client's health history
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The evaluation stage of the nursing process involves reviewing the assessments, diagnoses, and interventions given to the client and then determining if the client is meeting expected outcomes. In this scenario, the nurse is assessing whether the client is meeting the outcomes set for their care plan and making revisions as needed. Choice A is incorrect as assigning a nursing diagnosis is part of the nursing diagnosis phase, not the evaluation phase. Choice B represents the assessment phase of the nursing process, not the evaluation phase. Choice D involves discussing the client's health history, which is more aligned with the assessment phase rather than the evaluation phase.
A client is discharged following hospitalization for congestive heart failure. The nurse teaching the family suggests they encourage the client to rest frequently in which of the following positions?
- A. High Fowler's
- B. Supine
- C. Left lateral
- D. Low Fowler's
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is "High Fowler's" position. Sitting in a chair or resting in a bed in a high Fowler's position decreases the cardiac workload and facilitates breathing. This position helps reduce the work of breathing and promotes optimal lung expansion, making it easier for the client to breathe. Supine position (choice B) is lying flat on the back and may not be ideal for clients with congestive heart failure as it can increase pressure on the heart. Left lateral position (choice C) is commonly used for promoting circulation in clients with certain conditions but is not the most appropriate for congestive heart failure. Low Fowler's position (choice D) is not recommended as it does not provide the same benefits in terms of reducing cardiac workload and easing breathing as the high Fowler's position.