Nokea
The key to the prevention of a pandemic influenza is:
- A. Early detection
- B. Early antibiotic treatment
- C. Vaccination of at-risk populations
- D. Isolation of suspected cases
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The key to preventing a pandemic influenza is early detection. Detecting influenza cases early allows for timely public health responses to limit the spread of the virus. Early detection helps in implementing measures such as isolation, treatment, and vaccination to prevent the development of a full-blown pandemic. Antibiotics are not effective against influenza viruses, so early antibiotic treatment is not the key to prevention. While vaccination of at-risk populations is important in controlling the spread of influenza, early detection is crucial as it allows for timely implementation of vaccination strategies. Isolation of suspected cases is a containment measure rather than a prevention strategy; the key to prevention lies in early detection to stop the spread before it becomes a pandemic.
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Thrombolytic therapy is frequently used in the treatment of suspected stroke. Which of the following is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy?
- A. Air embolism.
- B. Cerebral hemorrhage.
- C. Expansion of the clot.
- D. Resolution of the clot.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cerebral hemorrhage is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy in stroke treatment. Thrombolytic therapy aims to dissolve clots, but it increases the risk of bleeding, including cerebral hemorrhage. This risk is especially high when the therapy is administered quickly after a stroke, sometimes before confirming the type of stroke. Air embolism (Choice A) is not a common complication of thrombolytic therapy. Expansion of the clot (Choice C) and resolution of the clot (Choice D) are not expected outcomes of thrombolytic therapy; the therapy is specifically used to dissolve clots, not to expand or resolve them.
When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?
- A. Following surgery
- B. Upon admission
- C. Within 48 hours of discharge
- D. Preoperative discussion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.
A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who had back surgery. All of the following indicate that the client is ready for discharge EXCEPT:
- A. The client still has sutures at the incision site
- B. The client is able to take a shower
- C. The client must still use an ice pack at the wound site
- D. The client has a temperature of 100.8°F
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When determining if a client is ready for discharge after back surgery, it is essential to ensure that there are no signs of complications or emerging issues. A postoperative temperature of 100.8°F may indicate a developing infection, and the client should not be discharged until this is further evaluated by the physician. Choices A, B, and C are indicators that the client is progressing well and ready for discharge, as having sutures, being able to shower, and using an ice pack are typically expected postoperative activities without indicating a need for further hospitalization.
A nonimmunized child appears at the clinic with a visible rash. Which of the following observations indicates the child may have rubeola (measles)?
- A. Small blue-white spots are visible on the oral mucosa.
- B. The rash begins on the trunk and spreads outward.
- C. There is low-grade fever.
- D. The lesions have a "teardrop-on-a-rose-petal"? appearance.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presence of small blue-white spots on the oral mucosa, known as Koplik's spots, is characteristic of measles (rubeola) infection. These spots typically appear on the buccal mucosa opposite the second molars, 1-2 days before the rash onset, and last until 2 days after the rash appears. While Koplik's spots are pathognomonic for measles, their absence does not rule out the diagnosis. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the rash pattern, presence of low-grade fever, and characteristic appearance of lesions are not specific indicators of measles infection.
A client must use a non-rebreathing oxygen mask. Which of the following statements is true regarding this type of mask?
- A. A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%.
- B. A client should breathe through his or her mouth when using a non-rebreather.
- C. A non-rebreather offers a reservoir from which the client inhales.
- D. The mask of a non-rebreather should be changed every 3 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A non-rebreather mask is used for supplemental oxygen delivery for clients experiencing breathing difficulties. The non-rebreather mask includes a one-way valve that allows exhaled air to escape, preventing the rebreathing of carbon dioxide. The client inhales oxygenated air from a reservoir bag attached to the mask, providing high-concentration oxygen therapy. A non-rebreather mask can deliver FiO2 levels of up to 90%, making it an effective intervention for clients requiring high oxygen concentrations. Therefore, the statement that 'A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%' is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clients should breathe through their nose and mouth, the mask offers a reservoir for inhaling oxygen, and the mask should be assessed and potentially replaced if soiled or damaged, not routinely changed every 3 hours.