Nokea
The LPN is caring for a client admitted for acute pancreatitis. Which of these medications would be least appropriate for pain management?
- A. Tylenol
- B. Tramadol
- C. Codeine
- D. Morphine
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Morphine is contraindicated for pain management in pancreatitis because it causes spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi.
You may also like to solve these questions
The mother asks the nurse why the anticonvulsant valproic acid is being prescribed for her adolescent who is beginning therapy for control of aggressive behaviors. The nurse's response is based on the fact that valproic acid is helpful in reducing manic and impulsive behavior by what mechanism of action?
- A. Block the effects of dopamine at the postsynaptic neuron
- B. Enhance the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the CNS
- C. Alter sodium channels in the neurons, thus decreasing nerve impulse transmission
- D. Increase gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) levels to inhibit CNS neurotransmission
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Valproic acid (Depakote) increases levels of GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS.
The client admitted for inpatient treatment of an anxiety disorder has been taking fluoxetine for the past 9 months. The HCP prescribes a new antianxiety medication and discontinues fluoxetine. What is the nurse's most appropriate intervention?
- A. Monitor the client closely for dizziness and lethargy due to discontinuation syndrome.
- B. Teach the client relaxation measures to use while adjusting to the new antianxiety drug.
- C. Call the HCP to question whether fluoxetine should be iżtapered rather than discontinued.
- D. Reassure the client that there is little risk of adverse effects when discontinuing fluoxetine.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Because of its long half-life, there is a relatively low risk of adverse effects when discontinuing fluoxetine (Prozac). The client should be reassured and taught about the change of antianxiety medication.
Which of the following should not be included in the teaching for clients who take oral iron preparations?
- A. Mix the liquid iron preparation with antacids to reduce GI distress
- B. Take the iron with meals if GI distress occurs
- C. Liquid forms should be taken with a straw to avoid discoloration of tooth enamel
- D. Oral forms should be taken with juice, not milk
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Iron should not be mixed with antacids, as antacids can reduce iron absorption. The other options are appropriate: taking with meals can reduce GI distress, using a straw prevents tooth discoloration, and juice enhances absorption while milk can inhibit it.
The HCP orders a digitalizing dose of digoxin 225 mcg IV now to be given to a 3-year-old. The pharmacy sends a solution of 500 mcg in 50 mL of D5W. How many mL should the nurse administer?
Correct Answer: 22.5
Rationale: Use a proportion formula: 500 mcg : 50 mL :: 225 mcg : X mL; 500X = 11250; X = 22.5 mL.
The adolescent is brought to the ED with wheezing, nystagmus, ataxia, and sensorimotor neuropathy after inhaling paint thinner by “bagging.†Which nursing intervention is priority?
- A. Monitor the client's cardiac rhythm.
- B. Place the client on seizure precautions.
- C. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters.
- D. Notify lab to obtain a toxicology screen.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Applying oxygen is the priority to address wheezing and potential oxygen displacement from inhalant use.