Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions

Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions Related

Review Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions related questions and content

The LPN is caring for a client newly diagnosed with HIV. Which statement made by the client regarding antiretroviral therapy (ART) would require correction from the nurse?

  • A. "If I start ART and use condoms, I'm less likely to transmit HIV to my partner."?
  • B. "I can still use ART even though I am Hepatitis C positive."?
  • C. "I will need to be on ART indefinitely."?
  • D. "I know I will need to come back for blood draws so that I can begin ART when my CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3."?
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the statement, "I know I will need to come back for blood draws so that I can begin ART when my CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3."? This statement would require correction from the nurse because initiating ART when the CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3 is not supported by guidelines. The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends making treatment a priority for those with a CD4 count of ≤350 cells/mm3, as early intervention can help delay disease progression. Therefore, waiting for a CD4 count of over 1,000 cells/mm3 is not in line with current recommendations.

Choice A is correct, as studies have shown that using condoms along with ART can significantly reduce the risk of HIV transmission to sexual partners. Choice B is also correct because being Hepatitis C positive does not contraindicate the use of ART. Choice C is correct as well, as ART is typically needed indefinitely to maintain viral suppression and manage HIV. Therefore, the only statement that would require correction is Choice D.

You may also like to solve these questions

When performing an eye examination, which area can a healthcare provider best visualize using an ophthalmoscope?

  • A. Iris
  • B. Cornea
  • C. Optic disc
  • D. Conjunctiva
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: An ophthalmoscope is a tool used to visualize the internal structures of the eye during an examination. The optic disc, located on the internal surface of the retina, can be best visualized using an ophthalmoscope. The iris, cornea, and conjunctiva are superficial structures that can be examined without the need for an ophthalmoscope. Therefore, the correct answer is the optic disc. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are external structures that can be examined directly without the use of an ophthalmoscope.

A nurse reviewing a client's record notes that the result of the client's latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client's results in which way?

  • A. The client is legally blind.
  • B. The client has normal vision.
  • C. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet.
  • D. The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.

A nurse assisting with data collection notes that the client exhibits rapid, involuntary oscillating movements of the eyeball when looking at the nurse. The nurse documents this finding using which term?

  • A. Ptosis
  • B. Nystagmus
  • C. Scleral icterus
  • D. Exophthalmos
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When a nurse observes rapid, involuntary oscillating movements of the eyeball in a client, this is described as nystagmus. Nystagmus appears as a fine oscillating movement, most notable around the iris. It is important to assess for nystagmus when evaluating ocular muscle weakness. Mild nystagmus at extreme lateral gaze is considered normal; nystagmus in any other position is not. Ptosis refers to a drooping of the eyelid, not rapid eye movements. Scleral icterus is the yellowing of the sclera up to the cornea, indicating jaundice, not related to eye movements. Exophthalmos is a noticeable protrusion of the eyeball, typically seen in hyperthyroidism, not associated with rapid oscillating eye movements.

Which of the following would likely not impede learning?

  • A. a client who took Ambien® an hour ago
  • B. a bipolar client currently in a manic phase
  • C. a client who states they are not interested
  • D. a client with dysphagia
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a client who states they are not interested. While lack of interest can hinder learning motivation, it is not a physical or mental barrier that directly impacts the learning process. On the other hand, a client who took Ambien® an hour ago may experience drowsiness or impaired cognitive function, affecting their ability to learn. A bipolar client in a manic phase may exhibit symptoms such as racing thoughts, distractibility, and impulsivity, making it challenging for them to focus and engage in the learning process. A client with dysphagia may have difficulty swallowing, which can interfere with their ability to take oral medications or participate in activities that involve swallowing.

A day care center has asked the nurse to provide education for parents regarding safety in the home. What type of preventive care does this represent?

  • A. Primary
  • B. Secondary
  • C. Tertiary
  • D. Health promotion
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Primary prevention involves activities that promote wellness or prevent illness or injury. Educating parents about safety measures in the home aims to prevent injuries, making it a primary prevention strategy. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and intervention in diseases or injuries. Tertiary prevention involves reducing disability and promoting optimal functioning in relation to a disease or injury. Health promotion encompasses activities that enhance a client's overall health and well-being. In this scenario, educating parents about safety in the home falls under primary prevention as it aims to prevent injuries before they occur.

Copyright © 2025 Nokea. All rights reserved.