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The LPN is following a plan of care for a client who is being treated for hypovolemic anemia and is at risk for hypovolemic shock. The nurse assesses vital signs and O2 saturation and observes the saturation at 89% for 3 minutes. What should the first action by the nurse be?
- A. Notify the charge nurse.
- B. Prepare to assist with intubation.
- C. Give oxygen per nasal cannula
- D. Place the client in the supine position.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An expected outcome for the client with hypovolemic anemia is to monitor to detect hypoxemia and manage and minimize inadequate oxygenation. The oxygen saturation should be monitored to measure the percentage of oxygen bound to hemoglobin. The nurse should report a sustained oxygen saturation value below 90%. Give oxygen per nasal cannula or simple mask to maintain oxygen saturation at or above 90%. It is important to administer the oxygen first and then contact the charge nurse to alert them. It is not necessary at this time if the client is not in respiratory distress to intubate the client. Placing the client in the supine position would decrease the oxygen saturation level further.
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A client who is diagnosed multiple myeloma experiences decreased production of red blood cells (RBCs). Which prescribed medication should the nurse prepare to administer to increase the production of erythrocytes?
- A. Filgrastim
- B. Pegfilgrastim
- C. Erythropoietin
- D. Dexamethasone
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The medication erythropoietin can be used to stimulate the production of red blood cells; therefore, this is the prescribed medication that the nurse prepares to administer to the client. Filgrastim and pegfilgrastim promote proliferation of neutrophils, not erythrocytes. Dexamethasone is a corticosteroid that is prescribed for clients who are diagnosed with multiple myeloma to inhibit the inflammatory immune response.
A client is experiencing chronic hypovolemic anemia as evidenced by laboratory results. What symptoms does the nurse expect to find for this client when collecting objective data?
- A. Postural hypotension
- B. Urinary output of 10 mL/hr
- C. Altered consciousness
- D. Extreme pallor
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Symptoms of chronic hypovolemic anemia include pallor, fatigue, chills, postural hypotension, and rapid heart rate and respiratory rates. The symptom of decreased urinary output, altered consciousness, and extreme pallor are all signs of acute hypovolemic anemia from severe blood loss. These signs indicate hypovolemic shock.
The nurse is assigned to care for a client with polycythemia vera. When the nurse encourages the client to drink 3 L of fluid per day, the client states, 'Why do I have to drink so much?' What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. We don't want you to get dehydrated.
- B. It helps adequately hydrate you and ensures a sufficient urine production.
- C. It will help your heart beat regularly and effectively.
- D. It will help restrict blood circulation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client should be advised to drink 3 quarts (or liters) per day. Adequate hydration promotes venous return and ensures sufficient urine production. Informing the client that the healthcare team does not want them to get dehydrated does not address the rationale that the client requires. Fluid hydration will not help the heart beat regularly or more effectively and it will not help to restrict blood circulation.
The nurse provides care for an older adult client, diagnosed with anemia, who has a hemoglobin of 9.6 g/dL and a hematocrit of 34%. To determine the cause of the client's blood loss, which is the priority nursing action?
- A. Evaluate the client's dietary intake.
- B. Observe the client's stools for blood.
- C. Monitor the client's body temperature.
- D. Monitor the client's blood pressure (BP).
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: If an older adult is anemic, blood loss from the gastrointestinal (GI) or genitourinary (GU) tracts is suspected. Observing the stool for blood will determine if the source of the client's bleeding is in the GI tract. Iron-deficiency anemia is unusual in older adults because the body does not eliminate excessive iron, thus increasing total body iron stores and necessitating maintenance of hydration. If evaluation of the GI and GU tracts does not reveal a source of bleeding, evaluating the client's diet may be appropriate; however, this is not the priority nursing action. Monitoring the client's body temperature and BP will assist the nurse in determining the source of the client's blood loss, but these are not priority nursing actions.
The nurse is caring for an older adult client who has been admitted to the unit with anemia. What would the nurse expect the client to possibly exhibit?
- A. Excessive consumption of coffee or tea
- B. Elimination of iron by the body
- C. Decrease in the total body iron stores with age
- D. Blood loss from the gastrointestinal or genitourinary tract
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: If an older adult is anemic, blood loss from the gastrointestinal or genitourinary tract is suspected. This is because iron-deficiency anemia is unusual in older adults as the body does not eliminate excessive iron, causing total body iron stores to increase with age. Excessive consumption of coffee or tea is not a causative factor for anemia in older adults.