Nokea
The LPN is taking care of a client who is on Phenelzine (Nardil) for depression. Which meal would the nurse encourage the client to avoid?
- A. steak and potatoes
- B. prosciutto and cheese plate
- C. orange juice and toast
- D. carbonated water, shrimp and rice
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'prosciutto and cheese plate.' Phenelzine (Nardil) is an MAOI (Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor), and clients on these drugs should avoid foods high in tyramine due to the risk of dangerous elevations in blood pressure. Prosciutto and aged cheeses are examples of foods rich in tyramine, so they should be avoided. Choices A, C, and D do not contain high levels of tyramine and are considered safe to consume while on Phenelzine.
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When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, what action should the nurse take?
- A. Asks the client to identify a small object brought into the visual field
- B. Has the client cover one eye while the nurse covers one eye and slowly advances a target midline between them
- C. Covers one eye, while the client covers the opposite eye, and brings a small object into the visual field
- D. Positions at eye level with the client, covers one eye, and has the client cover the opposite eye, then brings a small object into the visual field
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, the nurse should position at eye level with the client, cover one eye, and have the client cover the opposite eye. This approach allows the examiner to bring a small object into the visual field to evaluate the client's peripheral vision. The test aims to compare the client's peripheral vision with the examiner's vision to identify any visual field deficits. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A pertains to testing color vision, which is not part of the confrontation test. Choice B describes a different procedure that involves advancing a target midline between the client and examiner, not the correct approach for the confrontation test. Choice C is inaccurate as it fails to include the essential step of positioning at eye level with the client, making it an incorrect representation of the confrontation test.
An LPN is taking care of an elderly client who experiences the effects of Sundowner's Syndrome almost every evening. Which of these interventions implemented by the nurse would be the most helpful?
- A. Place a nightlight in the client's room.
- B. Administer the PRN sedative prescribed by the attending physician.
- C. Remind the client that the things and people they are seeing are not real and that they are safe.
- D. Turn on the TV or radio to a station the client enjoys.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A nightlight will help reorient the client to his or her surroundings in the evening and nighttime hours. It is best not to challenge the reality of a client experiencing Sundowner's Syndrome, and sedatives may make the effects of the syndrome worse. Every effort should be made to keep the client's room calm, quiet, and peaceful, so noise should be kept to a minimum. Reminding the client that what they are experiencing is not real may cause distress and confusion, while turning on the TV or radio may add unnecessary stimulation instead of promoting a soothing environment.
When a client who is 25 years of age asks the nurse when she should seek fertility counseling, the best response by the nurse is:
- A. Fertility counseling should be sought when you have been unable to conceive after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.'
- B. Fertility counseling should be sought when you have not been able to conceive after 6-9 months of unprotected intercourse.'
- C. The average time it takes someone your age to conceive is 5-12 months, so if you haven't conceived by then, we can refer you.'
- D. We can give you some guidance now on how to increase your chances of conceiving and then refer you if it doesn't happen within a year.'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The guidelines for a fertility workup are to refer after the couple has not conceived after one year of unprotected intercourse. So, Choice 1 is technically correct, but it doesn't consider the immediate need for the couple to have some counseling. Choice 4 is the best answer because it gives the couple guidance now and the referral at the appropriate time. If the woman is over the age of 35, an earlier referral, at six to nine months of unprotected intercourse, is appropriate. It is true that the average time it takes a 25-year-old woman to conceive is 5.3 months, but that does not address the concern the client is expressing. Choice 4 is still the most caring and correct answer. Couples conceive within the first month of unprotected intercourse 20% of the time.
A mother brings her 1-year-old child to the clinic. The child has no record of previous immunizations, and the mother confirms the child has not been immunized. Teaching by the nurse should include which of the following?
- A. Immunizations may be started at any age.
- B. The recommended immunization schedule should be followed.
- C. If a primary series of immunizations is interrupted, it can be continued.
- D. Delaying the start of vaccines does not increase the risk of reaction.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Immunizations may be started at any age.' While there is a recommended immunization schedule, immunizations can be initiated at any age. It is essential to emphasize the flexibility in starting immunizations. The statement 'The recommended immunization schedule should be followed' is too rigid; while recommended, there is flexibility in initiation. Choice C is correct as an interrupted series can be continued without restarting. The statement 'Delaying the start of vaccines does not increase the risk of reaction' is correct. Delaying does not increase the risk of reaction; in fact, it is important to start immunizations to protect the child and the community.
When assessing a client with deep pitting edema, with the indentation remaining for a short time and visible leg swelling, how should a nurse document this finding?
- A. 1+ edema
- B. 2+ edema
- C. 3+ edema
- D. 4+ edema
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 3+ edema. When assessing for edema, the nurse presses thumbs against the ankle malleolus or the tibia. If the skin retains an indentation, it indicates pitting edema. The grading scale for pitting edema includes: 1+ for mild pitting with slight indentation and no perceptible leg swelling, 2+ for moderate pitting where the indentation subsides rapidly, 3+ for deep pitting with an indentation remaining briefly and visible leg swelling, and 4+ for very deep pitting with a long-lasting indentation and significant leg swelling. Choices A, B, and D do not accurately represent the severity of the edema described in the scenario.