The LPN on shift notices a client coming into the clinic with bruises on his arm. The client seems very afraid and doesn't speak much, which concerns the nurse because these are signs of physical abuse. The nurse should ____.
- A. use therapeutic communication to talk to the client and offer support while reporting the findings to the appropriate authorities based on the state requirements and protocols
- B. report the findings to the appropriate authorities based on the state requirements and protocols
- C. ignore the bruises, as this is not why the client is being treated and is not appropriate for the nurse to address
- D. report the suspected abuse to another nurse and collaborate on how to handle it
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In cases of suspected abuse, healthcare providers have a legal and ethical obligation to report such incidents to the relevant authorities. This not only ensures the safety and well-being of the client but also helps in preventing further harm. Option A is incorrect as attempting to gather evidence of abuse may interfere with the official investigation and is not the nurse's role. Offering support is crucial, but the priority is to report the findings to the appropriate authorities. Option C is incorrect as ignoring signs of abuse goes against the duty of a healthcare provider to protect their clients. Option D is incorrect as reporting suspected abuse to other nurses without involving the appropriate authorities may delay necessary actions and intervention.
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In conducting a health screening for 12-month-old children, the nurse expects them to have been immunized against which of the following diseases?
- A. measles, polio, pertussis, hepatitis B
- B. diphtheria, pertussis, polio, tetanus
- C. rubella, polio, pertussis, hepatitis A
- D. measles, mumps, rubella, polio
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: By 12 months of age, children should have received vaccines for diphtheria, pertussis, polio, and tetanus (DTaP and IPV). The correct answer is B as it includes these vaccines that are typically administered in the first year of life. Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccination usually begins at 12 months of age but is not expected to be completed by this time. Choices A and C are incorrect as they include diseases that are not part of the routine immunization schedule for a 12-month-old child.
What is the intent of the Patient Self Determination Act (PSDA) of 1990?
- A. Enhance personal control over healthcare decisions.
- B. Encourage medical treatment decision making prior to need.
- C. Establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney.
- D. Emphasize client education.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The purpose of the PSDA is to encourage medical treatment decision-making before it becomes necessary. This legislation aims to empower individuals to make their own healthcare choices in advance. Choice A is incorrect because while enhancing personal control over healthcare decisions is important, the primary goal of the PSDA is to facilitate medical decision-making before the need arises. Choice C is incorrect as the PSDA does not establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney; instead, it encourages individuals to create their own advance directives according to state-specific regulations. Choice D is incorrect because while client education is valuable, the main focus of the PSDA is on empowering individuals to plan for their future healthcare needs.
The nurse is teaching parents of a newborn about feeding their infant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles.
- B. When refrigerating formula, discard partially used bottles after 24 hours.
- C. When using formula concentrate, mix one part concentrate and two parts water.
- D. If a portion of one bottle is left for the next feeding, discard it.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles. It is crucial to be cautious when heating bottles in a microwave to prevent milk from becoming superheated. The defrost setting is recommended, and the formula's temperature should always be checked before feeding the baby. Choice B, which advises to discard partially used bottles of refrigerated formula after 24 hours, is also correct. This is important to prevent the introduction of pathogens by the baby into the formula. Choice C, recommending mixing one part formula concentrate with two parts water, is essential for ensuring the correct dilution. Choice D, suggesting to discard any remaining portion of a bottle for the next feeding, is incorrect. It is not necessary to discard the remaining portion if it has been refrigerated promptly and used within a safe time frame. Adding fresh formula to a partially used bottle is not recommended, as it can lead to the growth of pathogens that may be transferred to the new formula.
A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
- A. naloxone (Narcan)
- B. labetalol (Normodyne)
- C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
- D. thiothixene (Navane)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to opiate overdose. Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist that can rapidly reverse the effects of opiates by competitively binding to opioid receptors and displacing the opiates. This action can restore normal respiration and consciousness. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a non-selective beta-blocker used to manage hypertension, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid overdose. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to manage psychotic disorders, not opioid toxicity.
The teaching plan for a postpartum client who is about to be discharged should include which of the following instructions?
- A. "It is normal for your breasts to be tender. You should call the physician if you also have redness and fatigue."?
- B. "Because your baby was delivered vaginally, you might have to urinate more frequently."?
- C. "It is normal to run a low-grade temperature for a few days. If it is higher than 100°F, call your physician."?
- D. "Be sure to call your physician if your vaginal discharge becomes bright red."?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the postpartum client to call the physician if their vaginal discharge becomes bright red. The vaginal discharge after birth is called lochia, and a return to red or containing clots could indicate impending hemorrhage or infection, necessitating notification of the physician.
Choice A is incorrect because although some tenderness may be expected, redness and fatigue are clinical manifestations of mastitis, not normal postpartum changes. Choice B is also incorrect as increased frequency of urination after vaginal delivery could indicate a urinary tract infection, not a normal postpartum change. Choice C is incorrect because running a low-grade temperature for a few days is not expected postpartum; an elevated temperature above 100°F should be reported to the physician as it could indicate infection.
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