Nokea
The LPN/LVN caring for a laboring client encourages her to void at least q2h, and records each time the client empties her bladder. What is the primary reason for implementing this nursing intervention?
- A. Emptying the bladder during delivery is difficult because of the position of the presenting fetal part.
- B. An over-distended bladder could be traumatized during labor as well as prolong the progress of labor.
- C. Urine specimens for glucose and protein must be obtained at certain intervals throughout labor.
- D. Frequent voiding minimizes the need for catheterization, which increases the chance of bladder infection.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary reason for encouraging the laboring client to void regularly is to prevent an over-distended bladder, which could impede the descent of the fetus, prolong labor, and be at risk for trauma during delivery. Choice A is incorrect because the difficulty in emptying the bladder during delivery is not the main reason for this nursing intervention. Choice C is incorrect as it pertains to obtaining urine specimens for glucose and protein, not the primary reason for encouraging voiding. Choice D is incorrect because although frequent voiding can indeed minimize the need for catheterization, the primary reason is to prevent an over-distended bladder and potential complications.
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In planning care for a client at 30-weeks gestation experiencing preterm labor, what maternal prescription is most important in preventing this fetus from developing respiratory syndrome?
- A. Betamethasone (Celestone) 12mg deep IM.
- B. Butorphanol 1mg IV push q2h PRN pain.
- C. Ampicillin 1g IV push q8h.
- D. Terbutaline (Brethine) 0.25mg subcutaneously q15 minutes x3.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The administration of Betamethasone (Celestone) is crucial in cases of preterm labor to promote fetal lung maturation and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Betamethasone helps enhance the production of surfactant in the fetal lungs, improving their functionality and decreasing the likelihood of respiratory complications upon birth. Butorphanol is an analgesic and not indicated for preventing respiratory syndrome in preterm infants. Ampicillin is an antibiotic used for infection prevention and treatment, not for fetal lung maturation. Terbutaline is a tocolytic agent used to inhibit contractions, but it does not have a direct effect on fetal lung maturity.
During a prenatal visit, the LPN/LVN discusses with a client the effects of smoking on the fetus. When compared with nonsmokers, mothers who smoke during pregnancy tend to produce infants who have
- A. lower Apgar scores.
- B. lower birth weights.
- C. respiratory distress.
- D. a higher rate of congenital anomalies.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When mothers smoke during pregnancy, it is associated with intrauterine growth restriction, which leads to lower birth weights in infants. Maternal smoking can restrict the flow of oxygen and nutrients to the fetus, affecting its growth and development. This can result in babies being born with lower birth weights, which can have various health implications for the newborn. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as smoking during pregnancy is primarily linked to intrauterine growth restriction and lower birth weights in infants, rather than lower Apgar scores, respiratory distress, or a higher rate of congenital anomalies.
In assessing a 9-year-old boy admitted to the hospital with possible acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN), what information is most significant to obtain in his history?
- A. Back pain for a few days
- B. A history of hypertension
- C. A sore throat last week
- D. Diuresis during the nights
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A recent sore throat is most significant in this case as it could indicate a preceding streptococcal infection, which is a crucial factor in diagnosing APSGN. Streptococcal infection often precedes APSGN, and recognizing this history is essential for appropriate management and treatment. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in the context of APSGN. Back pain and diuresis are symptoms that may not directly correlate with APSGN, while a history of hypertension, although important in general health assessment, is not as specific to the current scenario compared to a recent sore throat.
A community health nurse visits a family in which a 16-year-old unmarried daughter is pregnant with her first child and is at 32-weeks gestation. The client tells the nurse that she has been having intermittent back pain since the night before. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Ask the client's mother to call an ambulance for transport to the hospital immediately.
- B. Determine what physical activities the client has performed for the past 24 hours.
- C. Teach the client how to perform pelvic rock exercises and observe for correct feedback.
- D. Ask the client if she has experienced any recent changes in vaginal discharge.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention in this situation is to ask the client if she has experienced any recent changes in vaginal discharge. Changes in vaginal discharge can indicate preterm labor, making it crucial to assess promptly. This information will help determine if the client needs immediate medical attention and appropriate interventions to prevent preterm birth and ensure the well-being of the mother and the baby. Option A is not the priority as back pain alone does not warrant immediate ambulance transport. Option B is less relevant in this context as the focus should be on immediate concerns related to pregnancy. Option C is not the priority as addressing back pain should come after ruling out urgent pregnancy-related issues.
The nurse is caring for a female client, a primigravida with preeclampsia. Findings include +2 proteinuria, BP 172/112 mmHg, facial and hand swelling, complaints of blurry vision and a severe frontal headache. Which medication should the nurse anticipate for this client?
- A. Clonidine hydrochloride
- B. Carbamazepine
- C. Furosemide
- D. Magnesium sulfate
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario presented, the client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, including hypertension, proteinuria, facial and hand swelling, visual disturbances, and a severe headache. The medication of choice for preventing seizures in preeclampsia is magnesium sulfate. This drug helps to prevent and control seizures in clients with preeclampsia, making it the most appropriate option for this client. Clonidine hydrochloride (Choice A) is an antihypertensive medication used for managing hypertension but is not the first-line treatment for preeclampsia. Carbamazepine (Choice B) is an anticonvulsant used for seizure disorders like epilepsy and is not indicated for preeclampsia. Furosemide (Choice C) is a diuretic used to manage fluid retention but is not the drug of choice for treating preeclampsia.