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The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who has recently been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. The client asks, 'Why do I have to take medication every day?' What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. The medication will help stabilize your mood and prevent mood swings.
- B. You will need to take this medication for the rest of your life.
- C. The medication will help you feel better and more in control of your emotions.
- D. The medication is needed to control your symptoms and help you function better.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best response by the nurse is to explain that the medication will help stabilize the client's mood and prevent mood swings. This response provides the client with a clear understanding of how the medication works in managing bipolar disorder. Choice B is not the best response as it may cause unnecessary worry about lifelong medication dependence. Choice C is not as specific in addressing the purpose of the medication for bipolar disorder. Choice D is not as focused on the effect of the medication on mood stabilization, which is crucial in managing bipolar disorder.
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A nurse is caring for a client with major depressive disorder who is withdrawn and refuses to participate in group activities. What is the best nursing intervention?
- A. Encourage the client to attend at least one group session.
- B. Respect the client's wish to remain isolated.
- C. Arrange for individual therapy sessions.
- D. Offer the client a list of activities to choose from.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging the client to attend at least one group session is the best nursing intervention in this scenario. By gently encouraging participation, the nurse can help the client start to engage with others, which may gradually improve their mood and social interaction. Choice B, respecting the client's wish to remain isolated, may further exacerbate the client's withdrawal and depression by reinforcing avoidance behavior. Choice C, arranging for individual therapy sessions, can be beneficial but may not address the specific need for social interaction. Choice D, offering a list of activities to choose from, does not directly address the client's difficulty in participating in group activities and may not provide the necessary support in overcoming social withdrawal.
A client with schizophrenia is being discharged with a prescription for risperidone (Risperdal). What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide?
- A. Stop taking the medication if you start feeling better.
- B. Be aware of the potential for weight gain with this medication.
- C. Report any unusual muscle movements immediately.
- D. You can drive as soon as you feel ready.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Report any unusual muscle movements immediately." Unusual muscle movements may indicate extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) or tardive dyskinesia, which are serious side effects of antipsychotic medications like risperidone. It is crucial to address these symptoms promptly to prevent long-term effects. Choice A is incorrect because stopping the medication suddenly can be dangerous and should only be done under medical supervision. Choice B, while important, is not the most critical instruction in this scenario. Choice D is also incorrect as the ability to drive may be affected by the medication and should be discussed with a healthcare provider.
A 72-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depression. Which statement by the client should be of greatest concern to the nurse and require further assessment?
- A. "I will die if my cat dies."
- B. "I don't feel like eating this morning."
- C. "I just went to my friend's funeral."
- D. "Don't you have more important things to do?"
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sometimes a client will use an analogy to describe themselves, and (A) would be an indication for conducting a suicide assessment. (B) could have a variety of etiologies, and while further assessment is indicated, this statement does not indicate potential suicide. The normal grief process differs from depression, and at this client's age, peer/cohort deaths are more frequent, so (C) would be within normal limits. (D) is an expression of low self-esteem typical of depression. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are examples of decreased energy and mood levels which would negate suicide ideation at this time.
A client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia is still withdrawn, unkempt, and unmotivated to get out of bed. A mental health aide asks the nurse why the client is this way after being on fluphenazine (Prolix) 10 mg for 7 days. The LPN/LVN should tell the health aide:
- A. Prolixin is the most effective with positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
- B. The client will be less withdrawn and unmotivated when the Prolixin takes effect.
- C. The client's Prolixin dose probably needs to be increased again.
- D. Lack of motivation is a common side effect of the Prolixin.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
When developing a plan of care for a client in the psychiatric unit following aspiration of a caustic material related to a suicide attempt, which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?
- A. Risk for injury.
- B. Ineffective coping mechanisms.
- C. Alteration in comfort.
- D. Ineffective breathing patterns.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a client aspirates a caustic material, the priority nursing diagnosis should focus on addressing physiological concerns, particularly related to breathing patterns. Aspiration of caustic material can lead to airway compromise, respiratory distress, and potential lung damage. Therefore, monitoring and addressing ineffective breathing patterns are crucial for ensuring the client's immediate safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and C are important considerations in psychiatric care but are secondary to the critical physiological issue of ineffective breathing patterns in this scenario.