The main advantage of passive immunization over active immunization is that
- A. it can be administered orally
- B. it provides antibody more rapidly
- C. antibody persists for a longer period
- D. it contains primarily IgM
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: it provides antibody more rapidly. Passive immunization involves giving pre-formed antibodies directly to an individual, providing immediate protection. This is advantageous over active immunization, where the body needs time to produce antibodies after exposure to an antigen. Choice A is incorrect because passive immunization is typically administered through injection, not orally. Choice C is incorrect as the duration of antibody persistence is usually shorter in passive immunization compared to active immunization. Choice D is incorrect because passive immunization can contain various types of antibodies, not just IgM.
You may also like to solve these questions
A 60-year-old man with flank pain, hematuria, Hb 18 g/dL, Ca 11 mg/dL. Most likely diagnosis?
- A. Polycystic kidney disease
- B. Pheochromocytoma
- C. Adrenal carcinoma
- D. Renal cell carcinoma
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Renal cell carcinoma. In this case, the presentation of flank pain, hematuria, high hemoglobin, and high calcium levels is classic for renal cell carcinoma. The flank pain suggests tumor involvement, hematuria is a common symptom, high Hb can be due to erythropoietin production by the tumor, and high Ca can be from paraneoplastic syndrome. Polycystic kidney disease (A) typically presents with enlarged kidneys but not with these symptoms. Pheochromocytoma (B) usually presents with hypertension and palpitations. Adrenal carcinoma (C) is less likely given the presentation of flank pain and hematuria, which are more indicative of renal involvement.
A patient skin-tested with purified protein derivative (PPD)... develops induration at the skin test site 48 hours later. Histologically, the reaction site would MOST probably show
- A. eosinophils
- B. neutrophils
- C. helper T cells and macrophages
- D. B cells
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the purified protein derivative (PPD) is used to test for tuberculosis, which elicits a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction. Helper T cells and macrophages are key players in this response, as they release cytokines and activate macrophages to combat the antigen. Eosinophils (A) are more commonly seen in allergic reactions, neutrophils (B) are prominent in acute bacterial infections, and B cells (D) are involved in antibody production, not the primary response to PPD.
Which single feature of normal RBCs is most responsible for limiting their life span?
- A. Loss of mitochondria
- B. Increased flexibility of the cell membrane
- C. Reduction of Hb iron
- D. Loss of nucleus
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Loss of nucleus. The absence of a nucleus in red blood cells (RBCs) limits their ability to repair and regenerate, leading to a shorter lifespan. Without a nucleus, RBCs cannot synthesize new proteins or repair damaged DNA, making them more susceptible to wear and tear. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Loss of mitochondria - RBCs naturally lack mitochondria to make space for more hemoglobin, but this feature does not significantly impact their lifespan.
B: Increased flexibility of the cell membrane - While flexibility is important for RBCs to navigate through narrow capillaries, it does not directly affect their lifespan.
C: Reduction of Hb iron - While iron is crucial for hemoglobin function, a reduction in Hb iron does not directly limit the lifespan of RBCs.
A client has been newly diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus and is reviewing self-care measures with the nurse. Which statement by the client indicates a need to review the material?
- A. I will avoid direct sunlight as much as possible.'
- B. Baby powder is good for the constant sweating.'
- C. Grouping errands will help prevent fatigue.'
- D. Rest time will have to become a priority.'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because using baby powder is not a recommended self-care measure for someone with lupus. The rationale is that individuals with lupus are sensitive to sunlight (choice A) and should avoid it, should manage fatigue by grouping activities (choice C), and should prioritize rest (choice D) to manage symptoms. Baby powder does not play a role in managing lupus symptoms and could potentially worsen skin irritation.
Which toy is the most developmentally appropriate for an 18- to 24-month-old child?
- A. A push-and-pull toy
- B. Nesting blocks
- C. A bicycle with training wheels
- D. A computer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A push-and-pull toy. At 18-24 months, children are developing gross motor skills. Push-and-pull toys help strengthen muscles and improve coordination. They also encourage balance and enhance spatial awareness. Nesting blocks are more suitable for fine motor skills, while a bicycle with training wheels requires more advanced motor skills. A computer is not developmentally appropriate as young children need hands-on, physical play for optimal growth and learning.
Nokea