Nokea
The main clinical feature in hyperemesis gravidarum is
- A. Persistent vomiting or nausea
- B. Persistent sight-related problems
- C. Persistent diarrhoea and vomiting
- D. Frequency or urgency of micturition
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Persistent vomiting or nausea. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of morning sickness characterized by persistent vomiting and nausea during pregnancy. This is the main clinical feature due to hormonal changes and increased sensitivity to certain odors. Choice B is incorrect as sight-related problems are not a typical feature of hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C is incorrect as persistent diarrhea is not a defining feature of this condition. Choice D is incorrect as frequency or urgency of micturition is not a primary symptom of hyperemesis gravidarum.
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In which form of hypospadias should circumcision be deferred in order to preserve the prepuce for later surgical repair?
- A. Ventral displacement
- B. Proximal displacement
- C. Midscrotal hypospadias
- D. Meatus proximal to the corona
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In ventral displacement hypospadias, circumcision should be deferred to preserve prepuce for later surgical repair as the prepuce is needed for reconstruction. The prepuce can be used as a tissue graft to correct the hypospadias. In proximal displacement, the urethral opening is closer to the scrotum, making prepuce preservation less critical. Midscrotal hypospadias and meatus proximal to the corona do not typically involve prepuce preservation for surgical repair.
The AGACNP is evaluating a patient who reportedly fell down a flight of steps. Her history is significant for several emergency room visits, but she denies any significant medical conditions. Some documentation in her chart indicates that she may have been subjected to physical abuse. Today she presents with a periorbital ecchymosis of the left eye and swelling in the left side of the face. Her neurologic examination is within normal limits. Which head imaging study would be most useful in assessing for findings consistent with a history of abuse?
- A. Radiographs
- B. CT scan without contrast
- C. MRI
- D. PET scan
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: CT scan without contrast. A CT scan is the most useful imaging study in assessing for findings consistent with a history of abuse in this patient. CT scan is preferred for acute trauma to the head as it provides detailed images of the brain, skull, and facial bones. It can detect acute hemorrhages, fractures, or other signs of trauma. In this case, the patient's presentation with periorbital ecchymosis and facial swelling raises suspicion for traumatic injury, which can be assessed effectively with a CT scan.
Radiographs (choice A) are not as sensitive as CT scans in detecting subtle fractures or soft tissue injuries in the head and face. MRI (choice C) is not typically used in acute trauma assessment and may not provide timely information needed in this case. PET scan (choice D) is not indicated for evaluating traumatic head injuries and is more commonly used for assessing metabolic and functional activity in the body.
Delivery of breech with an extended head is accomplished through
- A. Burns Marshall maneuver
- B. Lovset maneuver
- C. Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit
- D. McRobert’s maneuver
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit maneuver for delivery of breech with an extended head. This maneuver involves flexing the head while still in the vagina to allow for easier delivery. The Burns Marshall maneuver (A) is for impacted fetal shoulders, Lovset maneuver (B) is for shoulder dystocia, and McRobert's maneuver (D) is for shoulder dystocia as well. The Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit maneuver is specifically designed for delivering a breech with an extended head, making it the correct choice in this scenario.
While participating in sports, it is not uncommon for people to be subjected to sudden rotational injuries that result in the abrupt rotation of the cerebral cortex around the more fixed midbrain structures. This can interrupt input and outflow from the reticular activating system and result in what clinical phenomenon?
- A. Epidural hematoma
- B. Uncal herniation
- C. Concussion
- D. Contrecoup injury
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Sudden rotational injuries can disrupt brain function.
Step 2: Abrupt rotation of the cerebral cortex can affect the reticular activating system.
Step 3: Disruption of the reticular activating system can lead to altered consciousness.
Step 4: Altered consciousness is a hallmark of a concussion.
Therefore, the correct answer is C: Concussion. Other choices are incorrect because an epidural hematoma involves bleeding between the skull and dura (A), uncal herniation involves brain shifting through tentorium (B), and contrecoup injury occurs opposite the site of impact (D).
During neonatal resuscitation, dry wiping is aimed at
- A. Preventing hypothermia and facilitating tactile stimulation
- B. Preventing hemorrhage and clearing of the airway
- C. Preventing infection and facilitating tactile stimulation
- D. Improving the appearance and preventing infection
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preventing hypothermia and facilitating tactile stimulation. Dry wiping during neonatal resuscitation helps prevent hypothermia by removing wetness from the baby's skin. It also facilitates tactile stimulation, which can help stimulate the baby's breathing.
Summary:
B: Preventing hemorrhage and clearing of the airway - Dry wiping does not prevent hemorrhage or clear the airway directly.
C: Preventing infection and facilitating tactile stimulation - While dry wiping can help prevent infection, its primary aim during neonatal resuscitation is to prevent hypothermia.
D: Improving the appearance and preventing infection - Dry wiping is not done for cosmetic reasons; its main purpose is to prevent hypothermia.