Nokea
The main diagnostic feature of puerperal pyrexia is
- A. Fever ≥ 38°C for three consecutive occasions
- B. Fever ≥ 38°C for three days continuously
- C. Fever ≥ 38°C for three weeks continuously
- D. Fever ≥ 38°C for six days occasionally
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fever ≥ 38°C for three consecutive occasions. Puerperal pyrexia is defined as fever occurring after childbirth. The key diagnostic feature is the presence of fever (≥ 38°C) on three consecutive occasions, indicating a persistent infection. Choice B is incorrect because it doesn't specify the need for consecutive occasions. Choice C is incorrect as it extends the duration of fever to three weeks, which is too long for typical puerperal pyrexia. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions "occasionally" instead of "consecutively," which is not indicative of a consistent fever pattern seen in puerperal pyrexia.
You may also like to solve these questions
TB in pregnancy predisposes a mother to premature labour due to
- A. Poor maternal appetite
- B. Severe anaemia experienced
- C. Adverse reactions of anti-TB drugs
- D. The fever experienced
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. TB in pregnancy can lead to premature labor due to the fever experienced. Fever increases the risk of premature labor by triggering uterine contractions. Poor maternal appetite (A) and severe anemia (B) may impact the mother's health but are not directly linked to premature labor. Adverse reactions of anti-TB drugs (C) could potentially affect the mother's health but are not a direct cause of premature labor.
According to the American College of Cardiology Foundation and the American Heart Association (ACCFAHA), the recommendation regarding antiplatelet therapy in patients with cardiovascular disease preoperatively is that
- A. Antiplatelet therapy should be held for 10 days preoperatively
- B. Cardiac consultation is required before an operation in patients who are on antiplatelet therapy
- C. Medications should be continued unless concerns about hemostasis are significant
- D. Antiplatelet therapy should be initiated in all high-risk cardiac procedures
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B is correct:
1. The ACCF/AHA recommends cardiac consultation before an operation for patients on antiplatelet therapy to assess the risk of bleeding versus thrombotic events.
2. Cardiac consultation helps determine the necessity of continuing, modifying, or stopping antiplatelet therapy.
3. This individualized approach ensures optimal perioperative management based on the patient's cardiovascular risk profile.
4. Choice A is incorrect as stopping antiplatelet therapy for 10 days can increase the risk of thrombotic events.
5. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the decision-making process without considering the patient's specific risks.
6. Choice D is incorrect because initiating antiplatelet therapy in all high-risk cardiac procedures may not be necessary for every patient.
Mrs. Jenner is a 41-year-old female who is being evaluated for persistent nausea. She had an abdominal CT scan that reported three hepatic hemangiomas ranging from 3 to 5 cm. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate response to this report is to
- A. Arrange for large-bore needle biopsy
- B. Order hepatic ultrasound annually to follow progression
- C. Consult surgery for resection
- D. Document the finding in the patient’s chart
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
A needle biopsy is appropriate for definitive diagnosis of hepatic hemangiomas, ruling out other liver lesions. It helps determine if they are benign or malignant. This will guide further management decisions.
Summary:
B: Annual ultrasound is unnecessary for benign hemangiomas.
C: Surgery is not indicated for asymptomatic hepatic hemangiomas.
D: Documenting the finding is important but not the appropriate next step in management.
Three (3) complications of breech presentation:
- A. Prolonged labor, umbilical cord prolapse, shoulder dystocia
- B. Cesarean delivery, fetal distress, uterine rupture
- C. Preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, low birth weight
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Breech presentation increases risks during childbirth. Prolonged labor is common due to the position of the baby. Umbilical cord prolapse occurs when the cord slips through the cervix before the baby, leading to oxygen deprivation. Shoulder dystocia happens when the baby's shoulders get stuck during delivery. Choice A is correct as it directly relates to complications of breech presentation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically address the complications associated with breech presentation. Cesarean delivery is often recommended for breech presentation to avoid complications. Uterine rupture is a rare but severe complication that is not directly caused by breech presentation. Preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and low birth weight are not commonly associated with breech presentation. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer.
How can Braxton Hicks contractions be differentiated from true labor?
- A. By timing
- B. By intensity
- C. By duration
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D - All of the above. Braxton Hicks contractions can be differentiated from true labor by timing, intensity, and duration. Timing refers to the regularity of contractions, intensity relates to the strength of contractions, and duration indicates how long contractions last. By considering all three factors together, one can determine whether contractions are Braxton Hicks (practice contractions) or true labor contractions. Choices A, B, and C alone provide only partial information, which may lead to misinterpretation. Therefore, choosing all three factors collectively (D) is essential for accurate differentiation.