Nokea
The male client in the day surgery unit complains of difficulty urinating postoperatively. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Insert an indwelling catheter.
- B. Increase the intravenous fluid rate.
- C. Assist the client to stand to void.
- D. Encourage the client to increase fluids.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Standing to void facilitates urination by using gravity, a non-invasive first step. Catheterization, IV fluids, and oral fluids are more invasive or secondary.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is preparing a client for surgery. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Check the permit for the spouse's signature.
- B. Take and document intake and output.
- C. Administer the 'on call' sedative.
- D. Complete the preoperative checklist.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The preoperative checklist ensures all safety measures (e.g., consent, NPO, allergies) are verified, the first step. Spouse signature, I&O, and sedatives follow checklist completion.
Which technique would be most appropriate for the nurse to implement when assessing a four (4)-year-old client in acute pain?
- A. Use words a four (4)-year-old child can remember.
- B. Explain the 0-to-10 pain scale to the child's parent.
- C. Have the child point to the face which describes the pain.
- D. Administer the medication every four (4) hours.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The FACES pain scale (pointing to faces) is age-appropriate for a 4-year-old, per pediatric pain assessment guidelines. Simple words are vague, numeric scales are for older children, and scheduled medication is not assessment.
The client received naloxone (Narcan), an opioid antagonist, in the postanesthesia care unit. Which nursing intervention should the nurse include in the care plan?
- A. Measure the client's intake and output hourly.
- B. Administer sleep medications at night.
- C. Encourage the client to verbalize feelings.
- D. Monitor respirations every 15 to 30 minutes.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Narcan reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression, requiring frequent respiratory monitoring to detect recurrence. I&O, sleep aids, and verbalization are secondary.
Which problem would be appropriate for the nurse to identify for the preoperative client having an open reduction and internal fixation of the right ankle?
- A. Alteration in skin integrity.
- B. Knowledge deficit of postoperative care.
- C. Alteration in gas exchange and pattern.
- D. Alteration in urinary elimination.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Knowledge deficit of postoperative care (e.g., weight-bearing, wound care) is common pre-ankle surgery, guiding teaching. Skin integrity, gas exchange, and urinary issues are postoperative or unrelated.
The PACU nurse administers Narcan, an opioid antagonist, to a postoperative client. Which client problem should the nurse include to the plan of care based on this medication?
- A. Alteration in comfort.
- B. Risk for depressed respiratory pattern.
- C. Potential for infection.
- D. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Narcan reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression, but risk persists, requiring monitoring. Comfort, infection, and fluid imbalance are unrelated to Narcan.