The male client states to the nurse, “I’ve recovered after having my new artificial heart valve inserted. Now I want to have a vasectomy so I don’t get my wife pregnant.” What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. “That’s probably not a good idea. You could get an infection and damage the new valve.”
- B. “You seem relieved that surgery was successful and that you can enjoy a normal life again.”
- C. “Be sure to take a nitroglycerin tablet before sexual intercourse to prevent any chest pain.”
- D. “Inform your surgeon about the new valve so antibiotics are prescribed before the procedure.”
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The surgeon should be aware of the artificial heart valve because antibiotics are required prior to invasive procedures to prevent complications such as endocarditis. The client is also taking an anticoagulant and would be at risk for bleeding. Other responses are incorrect or irrelevant.
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The client who has pain while walking has an ankle-brachial index (ABI) test. Results show that the client has ratios of 1.4 and 1.3 bilaterally. Based on these results, which should be the nurse’s conclusion?
- A. The client likely has peripheral arterial disease (PAD).
- B. Ticlopidine hydrochloride should be prescribed.
- C. The client’s pain is most likely psychological in origin.
- D. Medical follow-up is needed to determine the cause of pain.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client requires further medical consultation because the ABI (comparison of BP in ankle to the brachial BP) is normal in each leg (1.4 and 1.3; normal is 0.9-1.3). A ratio <0.9 indicates PAD. Ticlopidine is inappropriate, and psychological pain is not supported without further evidence.
The nurse increases activity for the client with an admitting diagnosis of ACS. Which client finding best supports that the client is not tolerating the activity?
- A. Pulse rate increased by 15 beats per minute during activity
- B. BP 130/86 mm Hg before activity; 108/66 mm Hg during activity
- C. Increased dyspnea and diaphoresis relieved when sitting in a chair
- D. A mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 80 following activity
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A drop in BP of 20 mm Hg from the baseline indicates that the client’s heart is unable to adapt to the increased energy and oxygen demands of the activity. The client is not tolerating the activity; the length of time or the intensity should be reduced. A modest pulse increase, relieved symptoms, and normal MAP are less concerning.
The client with atrial flutter is receiving a continuous infusion of 25,000 units of heparin in 500 mL of 5% dextrose at a rate of 12 mL per hour. The a PTT laboratory result is 92 seconds. According to the heparin infusion protocol, the nurse should administer the heparin infusion at a rate of how many mL per hour?
Correct Answer: 11
Rationale: According to the protocol, with an aPTT value of 92 seconds, the rate should be decreased by 1 mL per hour. If the infusion was previously infusing at 12 mL per hour, the new rate is 11 mL/hr.
The nurse completes teaching the client about CAD and self-care at home. The nurse determines that teaching is effective when the client makes which statements? Select all that apply.
- A. “If I have chest pain, I should contact my physician immediately.”
- B. “I should carry my nitroglycerin in my front pants pocket so it is handy.”
- C. “If I have chest pain, I stop activity and chew a nitroglycerin tablet.”
- D. “I should always take three nitroglycerin tablets, 5 minutes apart.”
- E. “I plan to avoid being around people when they are smoking.”
- F. “I plan on walking on most days of the week for at least 30 minutes.”
Correct Answer: E;F
Rationale: Teaching is effective when the client states: E) Avoiding passive smoke to prevent vasoconstriction; F) Walking 30 minutes most days as recommended by the American Heart Association. Contacting the physician immediately is incorrect (call 911), pants pockets are not ideal for nitroglycerin storage, nitroglycerin is taken sublingually not chewed, and three tablets are not always needed.
The client is hospitalized for HF secondary to alcohol-induced cardiomyopathy. The client is started on milrinone and placed on a transplant waiting list. The client has been curt and verbally aggressive in expressing dissatisfaction with the medications, overall care, and the need for energy conservation. Which nursing interpretation of the client’s behavior is most appropriate?
- A. The client is denying the illness.
- B. The client is experiencing fear.
- C. Alcohol abuse is affecting behavior.
- D. A reaction to milrinone is affecting behavior.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A threatening situation (need for heart transplant) can produce fear. Fear and helplessness may cause the client to verbally attack health team members to maintain control. There’s no evidence of denial, alcohol’s neurological effects, or milrinone causing behavior changes.