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The most common cause of acute kidney injury in critically ill patients is
- A. sepsis.
- B. fluid overload.
- C. medications.
- D. hemodynamic instability.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: sepsis. Sepsis is the most common cause of acute kidney injury in critically ill patients due to the systemic inflammatory response causing renal hypoperfusion. Sepsis leads to a decrease in renal blood flow, resulting in acute kidney injury. Fluid overload (B) can contribute to renal dysfunction but is not the primary cause in critically ill patients. Medications (C) can cause kidney injury, but sepsis is more prevalent. Hemodynamic instability (D) is a consequence of sepsis and can lead to acute kidney injury, making it an indirect cause.
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The nurse is assessing the patient’s pain using the Critical Care Pain Observation Tool (CPOT). Which of the following assessments would indicate the greatest likelihood of pain and need for nursing intervention?
- A. Absence of vocal sounds
- B. Fighting the ventilator
- C. Moving legs in bed
- D. Relaxed muscles in upper extremities
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fighting the ventilator. This behavior indicates the patient is experiencing discomfort and struggling against the ventilator, suggesting a high likelihood of pain. The CPOT assesses pain through behaviors like grimacing, vocalization, and muscle tension, which are all present when a patient is fighting the ventilator. Absence of vocal sounds (Choice A) does not necessarily indicate pain as some patients may be silent even when in pain. Moving legs in bed (Choice C) could be due to restlessness rather than pain. Relaxed muscles in upper extremities (Choice D) do not reflect pain as the CPOT focuses on behaviors indicating discomfort.
The patient’s spouse is very upset because the patient, who is near death, has dyspnea and restlessness. The nurse explains what options to decrease the discomfort?
- A. Respiratory therapy treatments
- B. Opioid medications given as needed
- C. Incentive spirometry treatments
- D. Increased hydration.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Opioid medications given as needed. Opioids are indicated for managing dyspnea and restlessness in palliative care by providing relief from symptoms. They act as potent analgesics and can help decrease the distress associated with difficult breathing and restlessness. Respiratory therapy treatments (A) and incentive spirometry treatments (C) may not address the immediate discomfort caused by dyspnea and restlessness. Increased hydration (D) may not directly alleviate the symptoms and could potentially worsen the patient's discomfort.
Two unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are arguing on the unit about who deserves to take a break first. What is the most important basic guideline that the nurse should follow in resolving the conflict?
- A. Require the UAPs to reach a compromise.
- B. Weigh the consequences of each possible solution.
- C. Encourage the two to view the humor of the conflict.
- D. Deal with issues and not personalities.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Deal with issues and not personalities. This guideline is important because it focuses on resolving the conflict based on the actual problem at hand, rather than personal biases or emotions. By addressing the issues causing the argument, the nurse can help the UAPs find a fair and logical solution.
A: Requiring the UAPs to reach a compromise may not address the root cause of the conflict and could lead to further disagreements.
B: Weighing the consequences is important but may not be as effective in resolving the conflict as directly addressing the issues.
C: Encouraging humor may temporarily diffuse the situation but may not lead to a lasting resolution.
The nurse is concerned about the risk of alcohol withdraw al syndrome in a 45-year-old postoperative patient. Which statement indicates an unders tanding of management of this patient?
- A. “Alcohol withdrawal is common; we see it all of the tiambierb .icno mth/tees tt rauma unit.”
- B. “There is no way to assess for alcohol withdrawal.”
- C. “This patient will require less pain medication.”
- D. “We have initiated the alcohol withdrawal protocol.”
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because initiating the alcohol withdrawal protocol shows an understanding of managing a patient at risk for alcohol withdrawal syndrome. This protocol involves carefully monitoring the patient's symptoms, providing appropriate medications, and ensuring a safe environment. Option A is incorrect as it downplays the seriousness of alcohol withdrawal. Option B is incorrect as there are assessment tools available for identifying alcohol withdrawal. Option C is incorrect as pain management should be tailored to the individual's needs, not necessarily lessened due to alcohol withdrawal risk.
When caring for a patient with a pulmonary artery (PA) pressure catheter, the nurse observes that the PA waveform indicates that the catheter is in the wedged position. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Zero balance the transducer.
- B. Activate the fast flush system.
- C. Notify the health care provider.
- D. Deflate and reinflate the PA balloon.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Notify the health care provider. When the PA waveform indicates the catheter is in the wedged position, it means the catheter tip is in the pulmonary artery, potentially causing complications. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately to assess and reposition the catheter to prevent further issues. Zero balancing the transducer (A) or activating the fast flush system (B) are not appropriate actions for this situation. Deflating and reinflating the PA balloon (D) could exacerbate the issue and should only be done under the guidance of the healthcare provider.