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The most significant clinical finding of acute adrenal crisis associated with fluid and electrolyte imbalance is
- A. fluid volume excess.
- B. hyperglycemia.
- C. hyperkalemia
- D. hypernatremia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (C: hyperkalemia):
1. Adrenal crisis leads to adrenal insufficiency, causing decreased cortisol levels.
2. Cortisol plays a crucial role in regulating potassium levels.
3. With decreased cortisol, potassium levels can rise, leading to hyperkalemia.
4. Hyperkalemia can result in life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias.
Summary:
A: Fluid volume excess is not typical in adrenal crisis.
B: Hyperglycemia can be present but is not the most significant finding.
D: Hypernatremia is not a typical feature of adrenal crisis.
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Slow continuous ultrafiltration is also known as isolated ultrafiltration and is used to
- A. remove plasma water in cases of volume overload.
- B. remove fluids and solutes through the process of convection.
- C. remove plasma water and solutes by adding dialysate.
- D. combine ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
Slow continuous ultrafiltration is a method used to remove excess plasma water in cases of volume overload, making choice A the correct answer. This process does not involve adding dialysate (choice C) or combining ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis (choice D). While ultrafiltration does involve the removal of fluids and solutes, it is primarily achieved through ultrafiltration rather than convection (choice B).
In calculating the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) results for women, the creatinine clearance is usually:
- A. the same as for men.
- B. greater than that for men.
- C. multiplied by 0.85.
- D. multiplied by 1.15.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: the same as for men. GFR is calculated based on factors like age, weight, and serum creatinine levels, which are not directly influenced by gender. Therefore, the creatinine clearance for women is the same as for men. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because there is no inherent biological difference between men and women that would cause a difference in creatinine clearance for GFR calculation.
The nurse is providing insulin education for an elderly patient with long-standing
diabetes. A prescription has been written for the patient to take 20 units of insulin glargine at 10
PM nightly. The nurse should instruct the patient that the peak of the insulin action for this agent
is
- A. 200
- B. 400
- C. 800
- D. peakless
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: peakless. Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin with a smooth, consistent release of insulin over 24 hours, providing a steady level of insulin without a pronounced peak. This characteristic helps in maintaining stable blood glucose levels. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they refer to peak values that do not apply to insulin glargine.
Which of the following patients is at the highest risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome?
- A. An 18-year-old college student with type 1 diabetes who exercises excessively
- B. A 45-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes who forgets to take her insulin in the morning
- C. A 75-year-old man with type 2 diabetes and coronary artery disease who has recently started on insulin injections
- D. An 83-year-old, long-term care resident with type 2 diabetes and advanced Alzheimer’s disease who recently developed influenza
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the 83-year-old long-term care resident with type 2 diabetes and advanced Alzheimer's disease who recently developed influenza is at the highest risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS). This patient has multiple risk factors for HHS, including age, type 2 diabetes, advanced Alzheimer's disease, and the added stress of influenza, which can exacerbate hyperglycemia. The combination of these factors can lead to severe hyperglycemia, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances characteristic of HHS.
Choice A is incorrect because although excessive exercise can lead to hypoglycemia in individuals with type 1 diabetes, it is not a risk factor for HHS. Choice B is incorrect as forgetting to take insulin can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis in type 1 diabetes, not HHS. Choice C is incorrect as starting insulin injections in a patient with type 2 diabetes and coronary artery disease does not automatically increase the risk
The nurse is assigned to care for a patient who presented to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis. A continuous insulin intravenous infusion is started, and hourly bedside glucose monitoring is ordered. The targeted blood glucose value after the first hour of therapy is
- A. 70 to 120 mg/dL.
- B. a decrease of 25 to 50 mg/dL compared with admitting values.
- C. a decrease of 35 to 90 mg/dL compared with admitting values.
- D. less than 200 mg/dL.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: a decrease of 35 to 90 mg/dL compared with admitting values. In diabetic ketoacidosis, there is severe hyperglycemia which needs to be corrected gradually to prevent complications like cerebral edema. A rapid decrease in glucose levels can lead to osmotic shifts and neurological issues. The targeted decrease of 35 to 90 mg/dL is considered safe and effective in managing hyperglycemia in these patients. This range ensures a controlled reduction in blood glucose levels without causing harm.
Choice A (70 to 120 mg/dL) is too broad and may lead to overly aggressive treatment. Choice B (a decrease of 25 to 50 mg/dL) is too conservative and may not adequately address the high glucose levels seen in diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice D (less than 200 mg/dL) does not provide a specific target range for glucose reduction, which is essential in managing diabetic ketoacidosis effectively.