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The most significant clinical finding of acute adrenal crisis associated with fluid and electrolyte imbalance is
- A. fluid volume excess.
- B. hyperglycemia.
- C. hyperkalemia
- D. hypernatremia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (C: hyperkalemia):
1. Adrenal crisis leads to adrenal insufficiency, causing decreased cortisol levels.
2. Cortisol plays a crucial role in regulating potassium levels.
3. With decreased cortisol, potassium levels can rise, leading to hyperkalemia.
4. Hyperkalemia can result in life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias.
Summary:
A: Fluid volume excess is not typical in adrenal crisis.
B: Hyperglycemia can be present but is not the most significant finding.
D: Hypernatremia is not a typical feature of adrenal crisis.
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Which of the following patients is at the highest risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome?
- A. An 18-year-old college student with type 1 diabetes who exercises excessively
- B. A 45-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes who forgets to take her insulin in the morning
- C. A 75-year-old man with type 2 diabetes and coronary artery disease who has recently started on insulin injections
- D. An 83-year-old, long-term care resident with type 2 diabetes and advanced Alzheimer’s disease who recently developed influenza
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the 83-year-old long-term care resident with type 2 diabetes and advanced Alzheimer's disease who recently developed influenza is at the highest risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS). This patient has multiple risk factors for HHS, including age, type 2 diabetes, advanced Alzheimer's disease, and the added stress of influenza, which can exacerbate hyperglycemia. The combination of these factors can lead to severe hyperglycemia, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances characteristic of HHS.
Choice A is incorrect because although excessive exercise can lead to hypoglycemia in individuals with type 1 diabetes, it is not a risk factor for HHS. Choice B is incorrect as forgetting to take insulin can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis in type 1 diabetes, not HHS. Choice C is incorrect as starting insulin injections in a patient with type 2 diabetes and coronary artery disease does not automatically increase the risk
The patient has elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels with a normal BUN/creatinine ratio. These levels most likely indicate
- A. increased nitrogen intake.
- B. acute kidney injury, such as acute tubular necrosis (ATN).
- C. hypovolemia.
- D. fluid resuscitation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The elevated BUN and serum creatinine levels with a normal BUN/creatinine ratio suggest kidney dysfunction. This pattern is commonly seen in acute kidney injury, like acute tubular necrosis (ATN), where the kidneys are unable to properly filter waste products. Other choices (A) increased nitrogen intake and (C) hypovolemia would not cause the specific pattern of elevated BUN and creatinine levels with a normal ratio. (D) Fluid resuscitation would actually aim to correct hypovolemia and would not directly affect the BUN and creatinine levels.
A patient is admitted to the oncology unit with a small-cell lung carcinoma. During the admission, the patient is noted to have a significant decrease in urine output accompanied by shortness of breath, edema, and mental status changes. The nurse is aware that this clinical presentation is consistent with
- A. adrenal crisis.
- B. diabetes insipidus.
- C. myxedema coma.
- D. syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). In this scenario, the patient's symptoms of decreased urine output, shortness of breath, edema, and mental status changes are indicative of fluid overload due to SIADH. SIADH causes excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. This results in edema, decreased urine output, and neurological symptoms.
A: Adrenal crisis presents with hypotension, shock, and electrolyte abnormalities, not consistent with the patient's symptoms.
B: Diabetes insipidus would present with excessive urine output and thirst, opposite of the patient's symptoms.
C: Myxedema coma results from severe hypothyroidism and presents with hypothermia, bradycardia, and altered mental status, not consistent with the patient's symptoms.
In summary, the patient's clinical presentation aligns
An individual with type 2 diabetes who takes glipizide has begun a formal exercise program at a local gym. While exercising on the treadmill, the individual becomes pale, diaphoretic, shaky, and has a headache. The individual feels as though she is going to pass out. What is the individual’s priority action?
- A. Drink additional water to prevent dehydration.
- B. Eat something with 15 g of simple carbohydrates.
- C. Go to the first-aid station to have glucose checked.
- D. Take another dose of the oral agent.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eat something with 15 g of simple carbohydrates. In this scenario, the individual is exhibiting signs of hypoglycemia due to the combination of glipizide (which can lower blood sugar) and exercise. The priority action is to raise blood sugar levels quickly to prevent further complications. Consuming simple carbohydrates, like glucose tablets or juice, will rapidly increase blood sugar levels. This is crucial to prevent the individual from passing out or experiencing more serious consequences.
Choice A is incorrect because while hydration is important, it is not the immediate priority in this situation. Choice C is incorrect as going to the first-aid station may waste valuable time when immediate action is needed. Choice D is incorrect as taking another dose of the oral agent can further lower blood sugar levels and worsen the hypoglycemia.
The nurse is providing insulin education for an elderly patient with long-standing
diabetes. A prescription has been written for the patient to take 20 units of insulin glargine at 10
PM nightly. The nurse should instruct the patient that the peak of the insulin action for this agent
is
- A. 200
- B. 400
- C. 800
- D. peakless
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: peakless. Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin with a smooth, consistent release of insulin over 24 hours, providing a steady level of insulin without a pronounced peak. This characteristic helps in maintaining stable blood glucose levels. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they refer to peak values that do not apply to insulin glargine.